MCQ_Clinical_Pharmacology.pdf

Series I-C Model Paper PharmacologyBasic Medical Science Author Email: [email protected]: 80 mins Total Marks: 100 | Pass Mark: 60

CLINICAL PHARMACOLOGYPlease use a dark pencil/pen to complete the test. Read the instructions at the

begining carefully. This is a practice test series in Clinical Pharmacology.

Please Note: There is a Negative Marking of (-1) for each incorrect response.

1. A drug which is used to treat ventricular arrhythmias

A Mexiletine

B Adenosine

C Diltiazem

D Amitryptyline

2. Which of the following drug combination results in drug interactions?

A clavulanic acid with amoxicillin

B paracetamol with codeine

C benzylpenicillin and heparin

D ciprofloxacin and furosemide

3. Match the following Prostaglandins, prostacyclin, and thomboxane with their

corresponding functions:

A. PGI2 A. steroid release

B. PGE2 B. vasoconstriction

C. PGF2 C. marked vasodilatation

D. TXA2 D. antiaggregatory effect on platelets

E. Prostacyclin E. prolactin release

4. Phenytoin induces enhanced metabolism of which of the following drugs?

A Aminopyrine

B Warfarin

C Carbamazepine

D Itraconazole

5. Consider the following statements regarding Class I antiarrhythmic agents:

Statement 1: they do not lengthen or shorten the action potentialStatement 2: slow channel blockers that interfere with sodium channelsStatement 3: are also called membrane stabilizing agentsStatement 4: Lidocaine is a class I b antiarrhythmic agentWhich of the above statements are incorrect?

A 1 and 2

B 2 and 3

C 3 and 4

D 2, 3 and 4

Basic Medical Sciences - 1 -

Series I-C Model Paper Pharmacology

6. First line drug used to treat General (tonic-clonic) seizure:

A valproic acid

B phenobarbital

C ethosuximide

D lorazepam

7. Regarding physiological effects of morphine, which of the following statements

is/are incorrect?

A analgesic effect is due to its

metabolite

morphine-3-glucoronide

B morphine relaxes Sphincter of

Oddi reducing biliary spasm

C morphine releases histamine

D activates DA receptors and

stimulates the CTZ

8. Organisms resistant to penicillin

A Staphylococcus aureus

B Listeria monocytogenes

C Neisseria meningitidis

D Bacteroides fragilis

9. Penicillin indicated for intramuscular use:

A penicillin G

B penicillin V

C benzathine penicillin

D all of the above

10. A glycopeptide antibiotic

A vancomycin

B neomycin

C bleomycin

D tobramycin

11. Given below is a list that includes 'drug of choice' and clinical conditions. Match

the following drugs with their most likely indications:

A. Ibuprofen A. hypertensive emergencies

B. Carbamazepine B. hyperadrenergic hypertensive

episodes

C. Ethosuximide C. rheumatoid arthritis

D. Sodium nitroprusside D. simple partial seizures

E. Phentolamine E. absence seizures

12. Which of the following agents is a -lactamase inhibitor?

A Cephalosporins

B Clavulanic acid

C Furazolidone

D Clindamycin



13. Consider the following statements about Beta-lactamases:

Statement 1: Staphylococcus aureus produces Beta-lactamase enzyme Statement 2: An example of beta-lactamase inhibitor is ceftazidimeStatement 3: Beta-lactamases producing 'superbugs' are susceptible to polymixins

Statement 4: Multistep cleavage of Beta-lactam ring involves formation of covalent intermediates in Amber class B beta lactams

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

A 2 and 3

B 2 and 4

C 1 and 4

D 1 and 3

14. Drugs that are poorly bound to plasma protein (25%) include:

A Lisuride

B phenytoin

C Haloperidol

D Warfarin

15. Dopamine agonist:

A haloperidol

B bromocriptine

C clozapine

D metoclopramide

16. Drug which stimulates the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ):

A apomorphine

B metoclopramide

C droperidol

D phencyclidine

17. Drug which is both lipid and water soluble and soluble in alcohol

A carbidopa

B ciprofloxacin

C azathioprine

D phencyclidine

18. Given below is a list that includes 'drug of choice' and clinical conditions. Match

the following drugs with their most likely indications:

A. Metronidazole A. Chlamydial pneumonia

B. Penicillin G B. Tularemia

C. Itraconazole C. pseudomembranous enterocolitis

D. Streptomycin D. paracoccidioidomycosis

E. Azithromycin E. syphilis

19. Gentamicin is derived from

A Micromonospora purpurae

B Microsporidium ceylonensis

C Micromonospora inyonensis

D Micromonospora echinospora



20. Drugs with plasma half-life more than 15 hrs include:

A Zaleplon

B Morphine

C Diazepam

D Baclofen

21. Drugs that have high bioavailability (>80%) include all of the following except:

A Diazepam

B Clavulanic acid

C Amoxicillin

D Phenytoin

22. Antibiotic effective in the treatment of infections due to multi-drug resistant

bacteria:

A -lactam antibiotics

B Carbapenems

C monobactum antibiotics

D Aminoglycosides

23. Drugs that are metabolized slowly:

A Neostigmine

B paroxetine

C fluoxetine

24. Drugs which are highly lipid soluble and have high protein binding (>90%)

includes:

A phenytoin

B propranolol

C fluoxetine

D sotalol

25. Which of the following is a correct combination of a blocker with Calcium

channel blocker?

A atenolol+ captopril

B nifedipine + verapamil

C propranolol + nifedipine

D diltiazem + captopril

26. Which of the following drugs has the highest bioavailability?

A Lamotrigine

B Amoxicillin

C rifampicin

D Ethosuximide

27. Which of the following drug has the lowest protein binding?

A loperamide

B sodium oxybate

C clonidine

D thiopentone

28. An example of parasympatholytic drug:

A Neostigmine

B Pilocarpine

C Carbachol

D Atropine



29. Which of the following is a parasympathomimetic agent?

A atropine

B droperidol

C dicyclomine

D tubocurarine

30. Match the following drugs with their corresponding 'plasma protein binding' values:

A. Zidovudine A. 70%

B. Methotrexate B. 55%

C. Phenytoin C. 50%

D. Carbamazepine D. 90%

E. Lamotrigine E. 30%

31. Regarding the anti-hypertensive effects of clonidine, not true is:

A inhibits 2 -receptors in the brain

B stimulates 2 -receptors in the

brain

C inhibits release of norepinephrine

D decreases sympathetic tone

32. Which of the following drug has the highest protein binding?

A lamotrigine

B carbamazepine

C rifampicin

D phenytoin

33. Which of the following drugs have a T half-life of less than


37. Nephrotic syndrome is an adverse effect of treatment with

A sulfasalazine

B chloroquine

C penicillamine

D methotrexate

38. Which of the following drugs is an abortifacient (a substance that may induce

abortion)?

A Heparin

B Warfarin

C Chloroquine

D misoprostol

39. Drugs that potentiates methotrexate's haematologic side effects include:

A penicillamine

B neomycin

C penicillin

D trimethoprim

40. Regarding penicillamine, pick the correct statement(s):

A It is contraindicated in Wilson's

disease

B It is recommended for treatment

of arsenic poisoning

C reduces IL-1 and rheumatoid

factor

D zinc increases absorption of

penicillamine

41. An epidemic of drug intoxication occurred in Australia (1969) due to differences in

bioavailability of

A phenylbutazone

B phenytoin

C triamcinolone

D carbimazole

42. Oculomucocutaneous syndrome is associated with the use of

A Practolol

B Etomidate

C Phenylbutazone

D Co-trimoxazole

43. Drugs known to inhibit hepatic microsomal enzyme CYP3A4 (enzyme inhibitors):

A Methadone

B Celecoxib

C Haloperidol

D Danazol

44. Drug of choice for the treatment of Kala-azar

A pentamidine

B sodium stibogluconate

C paromomycin

D miltefosine



45. Which of the following is not a benzodiazepine hypnotic?

A Zolpidem

B Chlorodiazepoxide

C Alprazolam

D Flurazepam

46. One of the following is not a bactericidal agent:

A Daptomycin

B Trimethoprim

C Isoniazid

D Bacitracin

47. A bacteriostatic agent:

A Quinolones

B Aminoglycosides

C Macrolides

D Polymixins

48. Match the following anticancer drugs according to their correct group of origin:

A. Azathioprine A. Nitrosourea

B. Methotrexate B. Purine antagonist

C. 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) C. Alkylating agent

D. Cyclophospamide D. Folate antagonist

E. Carmustine E. Pyrimidine antagonist

49. The following drugs are excreted in the urine except

A Albendazole

B Praziquantel

C Irinotecan

D Penciclovir

50. Which of the following combinations is an example of a blocker + ACE inhibitor?

A atenolol + diltiazem

B propranolol + losartan

C atenolol + amplodipine

D metoprolol + enalapril

51. Drug which potentiates the action penicillin

A allopurinol

B oral contraceptives

C gentamicin

D probenecid

52. Mechanism of action of ketamine

A inhibits GABA gated Cl- channels

B inhibits NMDA type glutamate

receptors

C inhibits Na+ selective cation

channels

D inhibits K+ selective cation

channels



53. Which of the following anesthetics is capable of producing dissociative

anesthesia?

A Fentanyl

B Midazolam

C Propofol

D Ketamine

54. One of the following anesthetic agent causes marked respiratory depression, low

blood pressure, and reduced cardiac output:

A Ketamine

B Ether

C Halothane

D Isoflurane

55. Drug of choice for Chlamydia trachomatis

A erythromycin

B penicillin

C azithromycin

D tetracycline

56. Tigecycline is effective against all of the following organisms except:

A Staphylococci aureus B Pseudomonas aeruginosa

57. Drug of choice for penicillinase producing Gonorrhea

A Ceftriaxone

B Amoxicillin

C Ampicillin

D Erythromycin

58. Drug of choice for Chancroid caused by H.ducreyi

A Amoxicillin

B Ceftriaxone

C Doxycycline

D Benzatheine penicillin

59. Match the following anti-diabetic drugs with their corresponding mechanism of

actions:

A. Pioglitazone A. releases insulin by binding to

sulfonylurea receptors

B. Metformin B. stimulates GLUT4 expression

C. Repaglinide C. decreases absorption of glucose

D. Acarbose D. stimulates insulin secretion

E. Glibenclamide E. suppress hepatic gluconeogenesis

60. Drug that induce Parkinsonism-

A Chlorpromazine

B Ropinirole

C Benserazide

D Chlorpheniramine



61. Which one of the following drugs has a better absorption following oral

administration?

A tigecycline

B demeclocycline

C doxyclycine

D chlortetracycline

62. Which of the following agents are teratogens?

A aminopterin

B isotretinoin

C ampicillin

D none of the above

63. Regarding drugs that undergo enterohepatic circulation, pick the incorrect

statement(s):

A they are mostly excreted in the

bile

B they are highly bound to serum

proteins

C their concentration in bile

exceeds those in serum

D they are rapidly metabolized

64. All of the following drugs are associated with occurrence of Torsades de pointes except:

A disopyramide

B fexofenadine

C terfenadine

D amitryptyline

65. Drugs that are primarily excreted unchanged in the urine include:

A fexofenadine

B flurazepam

C chloramphenicol

D nadolol

66. Drugs which are not excreted in the urine includes

A erythromycin

B doxycycline

C clarithromycin

D clindamycin

67. Concurrent use of which of the following two drugs may precipitate ventricular

arrhythmia?

A Norfloxacin + Theophylline

B Cotrimoxazole + Phenytoin

C Fluconazole + Carbamazepine

D Erythromycin + Terfenadine

68. Anticonvulsant that acts on GABA mediated Cl- channel

A phenytoin

B trimethadione

C lamotrigine

D vigabratin



69. Drug that is not metabolized:

A Amphotericin B

B Ethambutol

C Streptomycin

D Clarithromycin

70. Which of the following statements about lumefantrine is/are not true?

A plasma protein binding is 99%

B active against P. vivax

hypnozoites

C it is highly lipophilic

D inhibits isoenzyme CYP3A4

71. Plasma expanders are contraindicated in

A burns

B endotoxic shock

C cardiac failure

D severe trauma

72. Inorganic lead concentration in blood considered to be toxic in children:

A 5 mcg/dL

B 45 mcg/dL

C 30 mcg/dL

D 10 mcg/dL

73. Consider the following statements regarding insulin:Statement 1: decreased insulin release reduces carbohydrate intoleranceStatement 2: 2 stimulation causes increased insulin releaseStatement 3: insulin secretion augmented by 2 stimulationStatement 4: Actions of PGF2 on the endocrine system induces insulin release Which of the above statements is correct?

A 1 and 3

B 2 and 4

C 1 and 2

D 3 and 4

74. Selective 1 agonist

A Phenoxybenzamine

B Dobutamine

C Metoprolol

D Salbutamol

75. Drug of choice in persistent ventricular fibrillation refractory to DC counter-shock

and adrenaline:

A Lidocaine

B Amiodarone

C Atropine

D Epinephrine

76. Which of the following alkylating agents belongs to nitrosurea group?

A busulfan

B cyclosphosphamide

C mechlorethamine

D carmustine



77. Regarding mechanism of action of 5-Fluorouracil, what is not true?

A induces failure in DNA synthesis

B inhibits thymidylate synthase

C blocks the conversion of

deoxythymidylic acid to

deoxyuridylic acid

D converted to

5-fluoro-2-deoxy-UMP in the body

78. Match the following teratogens with their corresponding effects in fetus/neonates:

A. Penicillamine A. neonatal hypoglycemia

B. Chlorpropamide B. Cutis laxa

C. Carbamazepine C. Ebstein's anomaly

D. Lithium D. Mobius sequence

E. Misoprostol E. neural tube defects

79. Alkylating agent that belongs to aziridines group

A thiotepa

B cyclosphosphamide

C chlorambucil

D busulfan

80. Which of the following drug is not an indirect acting cholinomimetic?

A Edrophonium

B Pilocarpine

C Neostigmine

D Echothiophate

81. Treatment of choice in refractory ventricular fibrillation in patients on K+ losing

diuretics:

A Atropine

B Magnesium

C Potassium

D Amiodarone

82. Drug of choice for chicken pox in patients with immunodeficiency

A Acyclovir

B Lamivudine

C Gancyclovir

D Stavudine

83. Which of the following fluoroquinolones has the highest oral bioavailability?

A Norfloxacin

B Levofloxacin

C Sparfloxacin

D Ciprofloxacin

84. Dimercaprol is effective against poisoning due to all of the following metals except:

A Arsenic

B Copper

C Iron

D Mercury



85. The most important chelating agent used in lead poisoning

A Na2 EDTA

B Ca Na2 EDTA

C Penicillamine

D Dimercaprol (BAL)

86. To be effective, all of the following agents/drugs must be given parenterally (i.v.)

except:

A Vancomycin

B Carbenicillin

C calcium disodium edetate

D Drotaverine

87. Drug used to suppress laryngeal reflexes during induction of anesthesia:

A propofol

B thiopental

C midazolam

D ketamine

88. Anesthetic agent that is a cardio-respiratory stimulant

A Midazolam

B Ketamine

C Propofol

D Alfentanyl

89. Neuroleptanalgesia can be induced by which of the following narcotic +

tranquilizer drug combination?

A halothane+ clozapine

B fluphenazine + midazolam

C droperidol + fentanyl

D haloperidol + lorazepam

90. Drug used in Parkinson's disease that promotes synthesis and release of

dopamine from the presynaptic neurons:

A Amantadine

B Selegiline

C L-DOPA

D Entacapone

91. Mechanism of action of rosiglitazone

A stimulates insulin release from

pancreatic cells

B suppresses hepatic

gluconeogenesis

C retards intestinal glucose

absorption

D stimulates insulin responsive

gene transcription

92. Drug associated with high emetogenic property:

A Busulfan

B Cisplatin

C Methotrexate

D Fuorouracil



93. Which of the following is an anticholinergic drug?

A Bethanechol

B Neostigmine

C Atropine

D Donepezil

94. A drug which is a mast cell stabilizer:

A Cromolyn sodium

B Ipratropium bromide

C Prolastin

D Montelukast

95. The active metabolite of leflunomide used in RA inhibits which enzyme?

A dihydroorotate dehydrogenase

B thymidylate synthase

C dihydrofolate reductase

D cytidylate synthase

96. Which of the following drug classified as a BRM (biologic response modifier) is

used to treat rheumatoid arthritis?

A Infliximab

B Leflunomide

C 5-aminosalisylic acid (5-ASA)

D Chloroquine

97. Which of the following is a first line anti-epileptic drug?

A Ethosuximide

B Imipramine

C Carbamazepine

D Phenytoin

98. One of the following drugs is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA):

A Bupropion

B Fluoxetine

C Amitriptyline

D Moclobemide

99. Which of the following is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor(SSRI)?

A Nortriptyline

B Imipramine

C Fluoxetine

D Reboxetine

100. A drug that is contraindicated during pregnancy (Pregnancy Category X):

A Metronidazole

B Cotrimazole

C Itraconazole

D Diloxanide furoate



Disclaimer: Every attempt has been made to validate each and every question/answers. Any remaining error is regretted. Author will not be held responsible

for any errors. Please consult standard textbooks given in the reference section for any

discrepancy. Questions with wrong answers may better be left unattempted/

unanswered. This is a practice series available free to download designed for the

benefit of prospective PG candidates and UG medical students.

Reference Textbooks:

1. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th Edition, KD Tripathi

2. Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 13th Edition, Katzung & Trevor

3. A Textbook of Clinical Pharmacology and Therapeutics, 5th Edition, Ritter, Lewis,

Mant & Ferro


MCQ_Clinical_Pharmacology.pdf

Documents

Transcript of MCQ_Clinical_Pharmacology.pdf