Series I-C Model Paper PharmacologyBasic Medical Science Author Email: [email protected]: 80 mins Total Marks: 100 | Pass Mark: 60
CLINICAL PHARMACOLOGYPlease use a dark pencil/pen to complete the test. Read the instructions at the
begining carefully. This is a practice test series in Clinical Pharmacology.
Please Note: There is a Negative Marking of (-1) for each incorrect response.
1. A drug which is used to treat ventricular arrhythmias
A Mexiletine
B Adenosine
C Diltiazem
D Amitryptyline
2. Which of the following drug combination results in drug interactions?
A clavulanic acid with amoxicillin
B paracetamol with codeine
C benzylpenicillin and heparin
D ciprofloxacin and furosemide
3. Match the following Prostaglandins, prostacyclin, and thomboxane with their
corresponding functions:
A. PGI2 A. steroid release
B. PGE2 B. vasoconstriction
C. PGF2 C. marked vasodilatation
D. TXA2 D. antiaggregatory effect on platelets
E. Prostacyclin E. prolactin release
4. Phenytoin induces enhanced metabolism of which of the following drugs?
A Aminopyrine
B Warfarin
C Carbamazepine
D Itraconazole
5. Consider the following statements regarding Class I antiarrhythmic agents:
Statement 1: they do not lengthen or shorten the action potentialStatement 2: slow channel blockers that interfere with sodium channelsStatement 3: are also called membrane stabilizing agentsStatement 4: Lidocaine is a class I b antiarrhythmic agentWhich of the above statements are incorrect?
A 1 and 2
B 2 and 3
C 3 and 4
D 2, 3 and 4
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Series I-C Model Paper Pharmacology
6. First line drug used to treat General (tonic-clonic) seizure:
A valproic acid
B phenobarbital
C ethosuximide
D lorazepam
7. Regarding physiological effects of morphine, which of the following statements
is/are incorrect?
A analgesic effect is due to its
metabolite
morphine-3-glucoronide
B morphine relaxes Sphincter of
Oddi reducing biliary spasm
C morphine releases histamine
D activates DA receptors and
stimulates the CTZ
8. Organisms resistant to penicillin
A Staphylococcus aureus
B Listeria monocytogenes
C Neisseria meningitidis
D Bacteroides fragilis
9. Penicillin indicated for intramuscular use:
A penicillin G
B penicillin V
C benzathine penicillin
D all of the above
10. A glycopeptide antibiotic
A vancomycin
B neomycin
C bleomycin
D tobramycin
11. Given below is a list that includes 'drug of choice' and clinical conditions. Match
the following drugs with their most likely indications:
A. Ibuprofen A. hypertensive emergencies
B. Carbamazepine B. hyperadrenergic hypertensive
episodes
C. Ethosuximide C. rheumatoid arthritis
D. Sodium nitroprusside D. simple partial seizures
E. Phentolamine E. absence seizures
12. Which of the following agents is a -lactamase inhibitor?
A Cephalosporins
B Clavulanic acid
C Furazolidone
D Clindamycin
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Series I-C Model Paper Pharmacology
13. Consider the following statements about Beta-lactamases:
Statement 1: Staphylococcus aureus produces Beta-lactamase enzyme Statement 2: An example of beta-lactamase inhibitor is ceftazidimeStatement 3: Beta-lactamases producing 'superbugs' are susceptible to polymixins
Statement 4: Multistep cleavage of Beta-lactam ring involves formation of covalent intermediates in Amber class B beta lactams
Which of the above given statements is/are correct?
A 2 and 3
B 2 and 4
C 1 and 4
D 1 and 3
14. Drugs that are poorly bound to plasma protein (25%) include:
A Lisuride
B phenytoin
C Haloperidol
D Warfarin
15. Dopamine agonist:
A haloperidol
B bromocriptine
C clozapine
D metoclopramide
16. Drug which stimulates the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ):
A apomorphine
B metoclopramide
C droperidol
D phencyclidine
17. Drug which is both lipid and water soluble and soluble in alcohol
A carbidopa
B ciprofloxacin
C azathioprine
D phencyclidine
18. Given below is a list that includes 'drug of choice' and clinical conditions. Match
the following drugs with their most likely indications:
A. Metronidazole A. Chlamydial pneumonia
B. Penicillin G B. Tularemia
C. Itraconazole C. pseudomembranous enterocolitis
D. Streptomycin D. paracoccidioidomycosis
E. Azithromycin E. syphilis
19. Gentamicin is derived from
A Micromonospora purpurae
B Microsporidium ceylonensis
C Micromonospora inyonensis
D Micromonospora echinospora
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Series I-C Model Paper Pharmacology
20. Drugs with plasma half-life more than 15 hrs include:
A Zaleplon
B Morphine
C Diazepam
D Baclofen
21. Drugs that have high bioavailability (>80%) include all of the following except:
A Diazepam
B Clavulanic acid
C Amoxicillin
D Phenytoin
22. Antibiotic effective in the treatment of infections due to multi-drug resistant
bacteria:
A -lactam antibiotics
B Carbapenems
C monobactum antibiotics
D Aminoglycosides
23. Drugs that are metabolized slowly:
A Neostigmine
B paroxetine
C fluoxetine
24. Drugs which are highly lipid soluble and have high protein binding (>90%)
includes:
A phenytoin
B propranolol
C fluoxetine
D sotalol
25. Which of the following is a correct combination of a blocker with Calcium
channel blocker?
A atenolol+ captopril
B nifedipine + verapamil
C propranolol + nifedipine
D diltiazem + captopril
26. Which of the following drugs has the highest bioavailability?
A Lamotrigine
B Amoxicillin
C rifampicin
D Ethosuximide
27. Which of the following drug has the lowest protein binding?
A loperamide
B sodium oxybate
C clonidine
D thiopentone
28. An example of parasympatholytic drug:
A Neostigmine
B Pilocarpine
C Carbachol
D Atropine
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Series I-C Model Paper Pharmacology
29. Which of the following is a parasympathomimetic agent?
A atropine
B droperidol
C dicyclomine
D tubocurarine
30. Match the following drugs with their corresponding 'plasma protein binding' values:
A. Zidovudine A. 70%
B. Methotrexate B. 55%
C. Phenytoin C. 50%
D. Carbamazepine D. 90%
E. Lamotrigine E. 30%
31. Regarding the anti-hypertensive effects of clonidine, not true is:
A inhibits 2 -receptors in the brain
B stimulates 2 -receptors in the
brain
C inhibits release of norepinephrine
D decreases sympathetic tone
32. Which of the following drug has the highest protein binding?
A lamotrigine
B carbamazepine
C rifampicin
D phenytoin
33. Which of the following drugs have a T half-life of less than
Series I-C Model Paper Pharmacology
37. Nephrotic syndrome is an adverse effect of treatment with
A sulfasalazine
B chloroquine
C penicillamine
D methotrexate
38. Which of the following drugs is an abortifacient (a substance that may induce
abortion)?
A Heparin
B Warfarin
C Chloroquine
D misoprostol
39. Drugs that potentiates methotrexate's haematologic side effects include:
A penicillamine
B neomycin
C penicillin
D trimethoprim
40. Regarding penicillamine, pick the correct statement(s):
A It is contraindicated in Wilson's
disease
B It is recommended for treatment
of arsenic poisoning
C reduces IL-1 and rheumatoid
factor
D zinc increases absorption of
penicillamine
41. An epidemic of drug intoxication occurred in Australia (1969) due to differences in
bioavailability of
A phenylbutazone
B phenytoin
C triamcinolone
D carbimazole
42. Oculomucocutaneous syndrome is associated with the use of
A Practolol
B Etomidate
C Phenylbutazone
D Co-trimoxazole
43. Drugs known to inhibit hepatic microsomal enzyme CYP3A4 (enzyme inhibitors):
A Methadone
B Celecoxib
C Haloperidol
D Danazol
44. Drug of choice for the treatment of Kala-azar
A pentamidine
B sodium stibogluconate
C paromomycin
D miltefosine
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Series I-C Model Paper Pharmacology
45. Which of the following is not a benzodiazepine hypnotic?
A Zolpidem
B Chlorodiazepoxide
C Alprazolam
D Flurazepam
46. One of the following is not a bactericidal agent:
A Daptomycin
B Trimethoprim
C Isoniazid
D Bacitracin
47. A bacteriostatic agent:
A Quinolones
B Aminoglycosides
C Macrolides
D Polymixins
48. Match the following anticancer drugs according to their correct group of origin:
A. Azathioprine A. Nitrosourea
B. Methotrexate B. Purine antagonist
C. 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) C. Alkylating agent
D. Cyclophospamide D. Folate antagonist
E. Carmustine E. Pyrimidine antagonist
49. The following drugs are excreted in the urine except
A Albendazole
B Praziquantel
C Irinotecan
D Penciclovir
50. Which of the following combinations is an example of a blocker + ACE inhibitor?
A atenolol + diltiazem
B propranolol + losartan
C atenolol + amplodipine
D metoprolol + enalapril
51. Drug which potentiates the action penicillin
A allopurinol
B oral contraceptives
C gentamicin
D probenecid
52. Mechanism of action of ketamine
A inhibits GABA gated Cl- channels
B inhibits NMDA type glutamate
receptors
C inhibits Na+ selective cation
channels
D inhibits K+ selective cation
channels
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Series I-C Model Paper Pharmacology
53. Which of the following anesthetics is capable of producing dissociative
anesthesia?
A Fentanyl
B Midazolam
C Propofol
D Ketamine
54. One of the following anesthetic agent causes marked respiratory depression, low
blood pressure, and reduced cardiac output:
A Ketamine
B Ether
C Halothane
D Isoflurane
55. Drug of choice for Chlamydia trachomatis
A erythromycin
B penicillin
C azithromycin
D tetracycline
56. Tigecycline is effective against all of the following organisms except:
A Staphylococci aureus B Pseudomonas aeruginosa
57. Drug of choice for penicillinase producing Gonorrhea
A Ceftriaxone
B Amoxicillin
C Ampicillin
D Erythromycin
58. Drug of choice for Chancroid caused by H.ducreyi
A Amoxicillin
B Ceftriaxone
C Doxycycline
D Benzatheine penicillin
59. Match the following anti-diabetic drugs with their corresponding mechanism of
actions:
A. Pioglitazone A. releases insulin by binding to
sulfonylurea receptors
B. Metformin B. stimulates GLUT4 expression
C. Repaglinide C. decreases absorption of glucose
D. Acarbose D. stimulates insulin secretion
E. Glibenclamide E. suppress hepatic gluconeogenesis
60. Drug that induce Parkinsonism-
A Chlorpromazine
B Ropinirole
C Benserazide
D Chlorpheniramine
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Series I-C Model Paper Pharmacology
61. Which one of the following drugs has a better absorption following oral
administration?
A tigecycline
B demeclocycline
C doxyclycine
D chlortetracycline
62. Which of the following agents are teratogens?
A aminopterin
B isotretinoin
C ampicillin
D none of the above
63. Regarding drugs that undergo enterohepatic circulation, pick the incorrect
statement(s):
A they are mostly excreted in the
bile
B they are highly bound to serum
proteins
C their concentration in bile
exceeds those in serum
D they are rapidly metabolized
64. All of the following drugs are associated with occurrence of Torsades de pointes except:
A disopyramide
B fexofenadine
C terfenadine
D amitryptyline
65. Drugs that are primarily excreted unchanged in the urine include:
A fexofenadine
B flurazepam
C chloramphenicol
D nadolol
66. Drugs which are not excreted in the urine includes
A erythromycin
B doxycycline
C clarithromycin
D clindamycin
67. Concurrent use of which of the following two drugs may precipitate ventricular
arrhythmia?
A Norfloxacin + Theophylline
B Cotrimoxazole + Phenytoin
C Fluconazole + Carbamazepine
D Erythromycin + Terfenadine
68. Anticonvulsant that acts on GABA mediated Cl- channel
A phenytoin
B trimethadione
C lamotrigine
D vigabratin
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Series I-C Model Paper Pharmacology
69. Drug that is not metabolized:
A Amphotericin B
B Ethambutol
C Streptomycin
D Clarithromycin
70. Which of the following statements about lumefantrine is/are not true?
A plasma protein binding is 99%
B active against P. vivax
hypnozoites
C it is highly lipophilic
D inhibits isoenzyme CYP3A4
71. Plasma expanders are contraindicated in
A burns
B endotoxic shock
C cardiac failure
D severe trauma
72. Inorganic lead concentration in blood considered to be toxic in children:
A 5 mcg/dL
B 45 mcg/dL
C 30 mcg/dL
D 10 mcg/dL
73. Consider the following statements regarding insulin:Statement 1: decreased insulin release reduces carbohydrate intoleranceStatement 2: 2 stimulation causes increased insulin releaseStatement 3: insulin secretion augmented by 2 stimulationStatement 4: Actions of PGF2 on the endocrine system induces insulin release Which of the above statements is correct?
A 1 and 3
B 2 and 4
C 1 and 2
D 3 and 4
74. Selective 1 agonist
A Phenoxybenzamine
B Dobutamine
C Metoprolol
D Salbutamol
75. Drug of choice in persistent ventricular fibrillation refractory to DC counter-shock
and adrenaline:
A Lidocaine
B Amiodarone
C Atropine
D Epinephrine
76. Which of the following alkylating agents belongs to nitrosurea group?
A busulfan
B cyclosphosphamide
C mechlorethamine
D carmustine
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Series I-C Model Paper Pharmacology
77. Regarding mechanism of action of 5-Fluorouracil, what is not true?
A induces failure in DNA synthesis
B inhibits thymidylate synthase
C blocks the conversion of
deoxythymidylic acid to
deoxyuridylic acid
D converted to
5-fluoro-2-deoxy-UMP in the body
78. Match the following teratogens with their corresponding effects in fetus/neonates:
A. Penicillamine A. neonatal hypoglycemia
B. Chlorpropamide B. Cutis laxa
C. Carbamazepine C. Ebstein's anomaly
D. Lithium D. Mobius sequence
E. Misoprostol E. neural tube defects
79. Alkylating agent that belongs to aziridines group
A thiotepa
B cyclosphosphamide
C chlorambucil
D busulfan
80. Which of the following drug is not an indirect acting cholinomimetic?
A Edrophonium
B Pilocarpine
C Neostigmine
D Echothiophate
81. Treatment of choice in refractory ventricular fibrillation in patients on K+ losing
diuretics:
A Atropine
B Magnesium
C Potassium
D Amiodarone
82. Drug of choice for chicken pox in patients with immunodeficiency
A Acyclovir
B Lamivudine
C Gancyclovir
D Stavudine
83. Which of the following fluoroquinolones has the highest oral bioavailability?
A Norfloxacin
B Levofloxacin
C Sparfloxacin
D Ciprofloxacin
84. Dimercaprol is effective against poisoning due to all of the following metals except:
A Arsenic
B Copper
C Iron
D Mercury
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Series I-C Model Paper Pharmacology
85. The most important chelating agent used in lead poisoning
A Na2 EDTA
B Ca Na2 EDTA
C Penicillamine
D Dimercaprol (BAL)
86. To be effective, all of the following agents/drugs must be given parenterally (i.v.)
except:
A Vancomycin
B Carbenicillin
C calcium disodium edetate
D Drotaverine
87. Drug used to suppress laryngeal reflexes during induction of anesthesia:
A propofol
B thiopental
C midazolam
D ketamine
88. Anesthetic agent that is a cardio-respiratory stimulant
A Midazolam
B Ketamine
C Propofol
D Alfentanyl
89. Neuroleptanalgesia can be induced by which of the following narcotic +
tranquilizer drug combination?
A halothane+ clozapine
B fluphenazine + midazolam
C droperidol + fentanyl
D haloperidol + lorazepam
90. Drug used in Parkinson's disease that promotes synthesis and release of
dopamine from the presynaptic neurons:
A Amantadine
B Selegiline
C L-DOPA
D Entacapone
91. Mechanism of action of rosiglitazone
A stimulates insulin release from
pancreatic cells
B suppresses hepatic
gluconeogenesis
C retards intestinal glucose
absorption
D stimulates insulin responsive
gene transcription
92. Drug associated with high emetogenic property:
A Busulfan
B Cisplatin
C Methotrexate
D Fuorouracil
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Series I-C Model Paper Pharmacology
93. Which of the following is an anticholinergic drug?
A Bethanechol
B Neostigmine
C Atropine
D Donepezil
94. A drug which is a mast cell stabilizer:
A Cromolyn sodium
B Ipratropium bromide
C Prolastin
D Montelukast
95. The active metabolite of leflunomide used in RA inhibits which enzyme?
A dihydroorotate dehydrogenase
B thymidylate synthase
C dihydrofolate reductase
D cytidylate synthase
96. Which of the following drug classified as a BRM (biologic response modifier) is
used to treat rheumatoid arthritis?
A Infliximab
B Leflunomide
C 5-aminosalisylic acid (5-ASA)
D Chloroquine
97. Which of the following is a first line anti-epileptic drug?
A Ethosuximide
B Imipramine
C Carbamazepine
D Phenytoin
98. One of the following drugs is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA):
A Bupropion
B Fluoxetine
C Amitriptyline
D Moclobemide
99. Which of the following is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor(SSRI)?
A Nortriptyline
B Imipramine
C Fluoxetine
D Reboxetine
100. A drug that is contraindicated during pregnancy (Pregnancy Category X):
A Metronidazole
B Cotrimazole
C Itraconazole
D Diloxanide furoate
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Series I-C Model Paper Pharmacology
Disclaimer: Every attempt has been made to validate each and every question/answers. Any remaining error is regretted. Author will not be held responsible
for any errors. Please consult standard textbooks given in the reference section for any
discrepancy. Questions with wrong answers may better be left unattempted/
unanswered. This is a practice series available free to download designed for the
benefit of prospective PG candidates and UG medical students.
Reference Textbooks:
1. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th Edition, KD Tripathi
2. Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 13th Edition, Katzung & Trevor
3. A Textbook of Clinical Pharmacology and Therapeutics, 5th Edition, Ritter, Lewis,
Mant & Ferro
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