SIVA SAI PRASANTH · 1 Quest Tutorials Head Office : E-16/289, Sector-8, Rohini, New Delhi. Ph....

1 Quest Tutorials

Head Office : E-16/289, Sector-8, Rohini, New Delhi. Ph. 65395439

Quest

STRUCTURE OF ATOM

1. α - particle is identical witha) Protium nucleus b) Deuterium nucleusc) Positron d) Helium nucleus

2. Rutherford’s scattering experiment is related to the size of thea) Nucleus b) Atom c) Electron d) Neutron

3. If an electron has spin quantum number +1/2 and a magnetic quantum number -1, it can not be presentina) ‘d’ orbital b) ‘f’ orbital c) ‘p’ orbital d) ‘s’ orbital

4. If uncertainty in position of an electron is zero, the uncertainty in its momentum would be

a) Zero b) π2/h> c) π2/h> d) Infinite

5. Which of the following statement does not form part of Bohr’s Model of the hydrogen atoma) Energy of the electrons in the orbit is quantizedb) The electron in the orbit nearest to the nucleus has the lowest energyc) Electrons revolve in different orbits around the nucleusd) The position and velocity of the electrons in the orbit can not be determined simultaneously

6. The ratio of the energy of a photon of 2000Å wavelength radiation to that of 4000Å radiation is

a) 4/1 b) 4 c) 2/1 d) 2

7. Which of the following sets of quantum number represents an impossible arrangementsn l m S

a) 3 2 -2 1/2b) 4 0 0 1/2c) 3 2 -3 1/2d) 5 3 0 -1/2

8. Rutherford’s alpha particle scattering experiment eventually led to the conclusion thata) Mass and energy are relatedb) Electrons occupy space around the nucleusc) Neutrons are buried deep in the nucleusd) The point of impact with matter can be precisely determined

9. Bohr model can explaina) The spectrum of hydrogen atom onlyb) Spectrum of an atom or ion containing one electron onlyc) The spectrum of hydrogen moleculed) The solar spectrum

10. When beryllium is bombarded with alpha particles (Chadwick’s experiment) extremely penetratingradiations, which cannot be deflected by electrical or magnetic field are given out. These area) A beam of protons b) Alpha raysc) A beam of neutrons d) A beam of neutrons and protons

11. A filled or half filled set of p or d orbitals is spherically symmetric. Point out the species which hasspherical symmetry

a) Na b) C c) −Cl d) Fe

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Quest

12. A helium molecule is moving with a velocity of 12ms1040.2

−× at 300K. The deBroglie wave length is

abouta) 0.416 nm b) 0.83 nm c) 803Å d) 8000Å

13. In the hydrogen atom electrons are excited to the 5th quantum level. How many different lines mayappear in the spectruma) 4 b) 12 c) 8 d) 10

14. The wavelength of a spectral line for an electronic transition is inversely related toa) The number of electrons undergoing transitionb) The nuclear charge of the atomc) The difference in the energy of energy levels involved in the transitiond) Velocity of electron undergoing transition

15. An element has the following ionization energy values : ,3001 kJE = ,6202 kJE = ,43003 kJE =

kJE 60004 = . The element that most probably could be will have the following electronic configura-

tion in its outermost shell

a) 22npns b) 2

ns c) 12npns d) ( ) 110

1 nsdn −

16. The speed of an electron in the ground state in terms of velocity of light C will bea) C b) C/2 c) C/10 d) C/137

17. Of the following transitions in hydrogen atom, the one which gives an absorption line of highest fre-quency is

a) 2to1 == nn b) 5to3 == nn c) 1to2 == nn d) 3to8 == nn

18. The orbital diagram, in which the Aufbau principle is violated is

s2 px2 py2 pz2

a) ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑

b) ↑ ↑↓ ↑ ↑

c) ↑↓ ↑ ↑ ↑

d) ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑ ↑

19. A partical of mass, ‘m’ when annihilated completely gives an energy E equal to

a) 2mc b) 2

c

mc) mc d)

m

c2

20. Zeeman effect refers to thea) Splitting up of the lines in an emission spectrum in a magnetic fieldb) Splitting up of the lines in an emission spectrum in the presence of an external electrostatic fieldc) Emission of electrons form metals when light falls upon themd) Random scattering of light by colloidal particles.

21. Atoms may be regarded as comprising of protons, neutrons and electrons. If the mass attributed to a

neutron were halved and that attributed to the electron were doubled, the atomic mass of 126C would

a) Remain approximately the same b) Be approximately doubledc) Be approximately halved d) Be reduced approximately by 25%

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Quest

22. For the energy levels in an atom, which one of the following statements is correcta) There is seven principal electron energy levelsb) The second principal energy level can have four sub-energy levels and contains a maximum ofeight electronsc) The M-energy level can have maximum of 32 electrons

d) The s4 sub-energy level is at a higher energy than the 3d sub-energy level

23. The maximum probability of finding an electron in the xyd orbital is

a) Along the x-axis b) Along the y-axisc) At an angle of 45° form the x and y axisd) At an angle of 90° from the x and y axis

24. Which of the following does not characterize X-raysa) The radiation can ionize gasesb) It causes ZnS to fluorescec) Deflected by electric and magnetic fieldd) Have wave length shorter than ultra violet rays

25. Which of the following relates to photons both as wave motion and as a stream of particles

a) Interference b) 2mcE = c) Diffraction d) hvE =

26. The wave number of first line of Balmer series of hydrogen is 15200cm-1. The wave number of first

Balmer line of +2Li ion isa) 15200cm-1 b) 60800cm-1 c) 76000cm-1 d) 136800cm-1

27. Which combinations of quantum numbers, n, l, m, s for the electron in an atom does not provide apermissible solution of the wave equation

a)2

1,2,2,3 − b)

2

1,1,3,3 − c)

2

1,1,2,3 d)

2

1,1,1,3 −

28. A certain transition in the hydrogen spectrum from an excited state to the ground state in one or moresteps gives rise to a total of ten lines. Number of lines lying in the visible spectrum isa) 5 b) 3 c) 6 d) 4

29. What is the ratio of the de Broglie wave lengths for electrons accelerated through 200 volts and 50 voltsa) 1 : 2 b) 2 : 1 c) 3 : 10 d) 10 : 3

30. The first Lyman transition in the hydrogen spectrum has eVE 2.10=∆ . The same energy change isobserved in the second Balmer transition of

a) +2Li b) +

Li c) +He d) +3

Be

31. The wave number ratio for two transitions in the spectrum of atomic hydrogen is 108 : 7. The transi-tions area) first Lyman and first Paschen transitionsb) First Lyman and first Brackett transitionc) First and second Balmer transitionsd) First Lyman and second Balmer transitions

32. Radius of hydrogen atom in its ground state is 0.53Å. In the same state, the radius of ++Li (Atomicnumber = 3) will bea) 1.06Å b) 0.265Å c) 0.17Å d) 0.53Å

33. Which of the following quantum numbers is not obtained by the solution of Schrodinger wave equationa) Magnetic quantum number b) Principal quantum numberc) Spin quantum number d) Azimuthal quantum number

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Quest

34. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom in the ground state is xkJ. The energy required for an electron tojump from 2nd orbit to 3rd orbit is

a) 36/5x b) 5x c) 7.2x d) 6/x

35. The optical transition in the +He spectrum from n = 4 to n = 2 corresponds to which transition in the

hydrogen spectrum

a) 1 to2 == nn b) 1 to3 == nn c) 2 to3 == nn d) 2 to4 == nn

36. What is false to say about anode raysa) Their e/m ratio depends upon the nature of residual gasb) They are deflected by electrical and magnetic fieldc) Their e/m ratio is constantd) These are produced by ionization of molecules of the noble gas

37. In an atom having 2K, 8L, 8M and 2N electrons, the number of electrons with 2

1;0 +== sm are

a) 6 b) 2 c) 8 d) 16

38. In an excited H-atom, when electron drops from n = 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 ......... to n = 1, their is emission ofa) IR radiations b) Visible radiations c) Micro waves d) U.V. rays

39. The angular momentum of an electron in an atomic orbital is governed by thea) Principal quantum number b) Azimuthal quantum numberc) Magnetic quantum number d) Spin quantum number

40. Orbital angular momentum of a 3d-electron is

a)π2

.2. h

b)π2

.6h

c)π2

hd)

π4

h

41. The wave function of electrons in atoms and molecules are calleda) Subshells b) Quantum c) Orbitals d) All

42. The first use of quantum theory to explain the structure of atom was made bya) Heisenberg b) Bohr c) Planck d) Einstein

43. The number of waves made by a Bohr electron in an orbit of maximum magnetic quantum number +2 isa) 3 b) 0 c) 2 d) 1

44. An electron beam accelerated through 18.6kV has a de Broglie wave length of m12

109−× . What

accelerating potential would be needed for a de Broglie wave length twice as mucha) 9.3 kV b) 4.65 kV c) 39.2 kV d) 13.95 kV

Directions: The questions consist of two statements each printed as Assertion and Reason. Whileanswering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses toencircle (A, B, C, D) as per instructions given belowThe questions below (45 to 59) consist of an "Assertion" in column 1 and the 'Reason' in column 2.Use the following key to choose the appropriate answer.a)If both assertion and reason are CORRECT, and reason is the CORRECT explanationof the assertion.b)If both assertion and reason are CORRECT, but reason is NOT the CORRECT explanation of theassertion.c) If assertion is CORRECT, but reason is INCORRECT.

d) If both assertion and reason are false.

45. Assertion : Cathode rays are deflected towards positive plate in an electric field.Reason : These consist of negatively charged particles.a) A b) B c) C d) D

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46. Assertion: Penetration power of proton is greater that of an α -particle.Reason: The e/m of proton is double of that of α -particle.a) A b) B c) C d) D

47. Assertion: Bohr theory is not applicable to ionized hydrogen atom.

Reason: +H is devoid of electron.

a) A b) B c) C d) D

48. Assertion: An atom is electrically neutral.Reason: Atom contains equal number of protons and neutrons.a) A b) B c) C d) D

49. Assertion: A beam of electrons deflects more than a beam of α -particles in an electric field.Reason: Electrons carry -ve charge while α -particles are positively charged.a) A b) B c) C d) D

50. Assertion: Atomic weights of elements are non-integral.Reason: Elements contain isotopes of different masses.a) A b) B c) C d) D

512. Assertion: The de Broglie wavelength of electron increases as the accelerating potential differencedecreases.Reason: The magnitude of charge on electron decreases with decreasing accelerating potential differ-ence.a) A b) B c) C d) D

52 Assertion: The orbital angular momentum of an electron in any ‘s’ atomic orbital is zero.

Reason: For any s-electron, 0=l .a) A b) B c) C d) D

53. Assertion: Macroscopic bodies in motion do not have matter wavelength.Reason: The momentum of the moving macroscopic body is large.a) A b) B c) C d) D

54. Assertion: Line spectrum of +2Li and +

He are identical.Reason: Isoelectronic species produce identical spectrum.a) A b) B c) C d) D

55. Assertion: Energy of 3d -subshell is lower than 4p-subshell.

Reason: Value of ( )ln + is 5 for both of these subshells.

a) A b) B c) C d) D

56. Assertion: There are three nodal points in the 4s-subshell.Reason: At nodal point, the electron density is maximum.a) A b) B c) C d) D

57. Assertion: Among 12C , 13

C and 14C , only 14

C is radioactive.

Reason: The N/P ratio in 14C is higher..

a) A b) B c) C d) D

58. Assertion: The energy of an electron is largely determined by its principal quantum number.Reason: The principal quantum number is a measure of the energy of the electrons around the nucleus.a) A b) B c) C d) D

59. Assertion: The 19th electron of potassium atom is present into the 4s-orbitals and not in the 3d-orbital.

Reason: ( )ln + rule is followed for determining the orbitals of the lowest energy state.

a) A b) B c) C d) D

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Quest

Answers

1. d 2. a 3. d. 4. d 5. d 6. d7. c 8. b 9. b 10. c 11. c 12. a13. a 14. c 15. b 16. d 17. a 18. b19. a 20. a 21. d 22. b 23. c 24. c25. d 26. d 27. b 28. b 29. a 30. c31. a 32. c 33. c 34. a 35. a 36. c37. a 38. d 39. b 40. b 41. c 42. b43. a 44. b 45. a 46. b 47. a 48. c49. b 50. a 51. c 52. a 53. a 54. a55. b 56. c 57. a 58. a 59. a

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Quest

PERIODIC PROPERTIES

1. The ‘Law of triads’ was enunciated bya) Mendeleeff b) Newlands c) Victor Meyer d) Dobereiner

2. Diagonal relationship is not shown bya) Li and Mg b) C and P c) B and Si d) Be and Al

3. The transition elements have a characteristic electronic configuration which can be represented as

a) 26210162)1()2( nspsndpsn −−

− b) 1216210162)1()2( nsdpsndpsn

or−−

−

c) 101621062)1(

−− ndnpnsdpsn d) 2110162

)1(or

nsdpsn−

−

4. Which one of the following ions is paramagnetic ?

a) +Ag b)

+2Fe c) +

K d) +2Mg

5. The statement that is not true for the long form of the periodic table isa) It reflects the sequence of filling the electrons in the order of the subenergy shells s,p,d and fb) It helps to predict the stable valency states of the elementsc) It reflects trends in physical and chemical properties of the elementsd) it helps to predict the relative ionicity of the bond between any two elements

6. The element with the highest ionisation potential isa) oxygen b) nitrogen c) carbon d) boron

7. The first ionisation potential of AlMgNa ,, and Si are in the order of

a) SiAlMgNa <>< b) SiAlMgNa >>>

c) SiAlMgNa ><< d) SiAlMgNa <>>

8. Atomic radii of fluorine and neon in angstroms units are respectivelya) 1.60 and 1.60 b) 0.72 and 1.60 c) 0.72 and 0.72 d) none of these

9. The electronegativity of the following elements increases in the order of

a) PSiNC ,,, b) PCSiN ,,, c) NCPSi ,,, d) CNSiP ,,,

10. The order in which the following oxides are arranged according to decreasing basic nature is

a) 322 ,,, OAlMgOONaCuO b) ONaCuOMgOOAl 232 ,,,

c) ONaCuOOAlMgO 232 ,,, d) CuOOAlMgOONa ,,, 322

11. The difference between ions and atoms is ofa) relative size b) configurationc) presence of charge d) all of the above

12.+

Na is smaller than Na atom because

a) nucleus in each case contains different nucleonsb) sodium atom has an electron lesser than sodium ionc) sodium atom has 11 electrons and sodium ion has 10 electrons

d) the force of attractions is less in +

Na than in Na atom

13. The highest valency of halogens with respect to oxygen isa) 1 b) -1 c) 2 d) 7

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Quest

14. The first ionisation potentials in electron volts of nitrogen and oxygen atoms are respectively given bya) 14.6, 13.6 b) 13.6, 14.6 c) 13.6, 13.6 d) 14.6, 14.6

15. The electronic configuration of element A is 26223,22,1 spss while of the element B is 522

22,1 pss .

The formula of the compound containing A and B will be

a) Ab b) BA2 c) 2AB d) 62BA

16. Which one of the following has the highest melting point ?

a) Na b) Mg c) K d) Al

17. Which one of the following is most acidic ?

a) 32OAl b) ONa2 c) MgO d) CaO

18. Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide ?

a) MgO b) 32OAl c) 2SiO d) 52OP

19. Which of the following is the correct statement ?

a) 2SO is anhydride of sulphuric acid b) 2NO is anhydride of nitric acid

c) 72OCl is anhydride of perchloric acid d) 52OP is anhydride of orthophosphorus acid

20. Which is most acidic oxide ?

a) OCl2 b) 32OCl c) 52OCl d) 72OCl

21. Which of the following halides is not oxidized by 2MnO ?

a) −F b)

−Cl c)

−Br d)

−I

22. Which of the following order is correct for the relative strength of the acids ?

a) HClSOHHNOHClO >>> 4234 b) 4234 SOHNHOHClHClO >>>

c) 3424 HNOHClSOHHClO >>> d) HClSOHHNOHClO >>> 4234

23. Ionisation energy of nitrogen is more than oxygen becausea) Oxygen nucleus has more attraction for electronsb) half filled ‘p’ orbitals are more stable c) nitrogen atom is smalld) more penetration effect

24. The outermost electronic configuration of the most electronegative element is

a) 32npns b) 42

npns c) 52npns d) 62

npns

25. Amongst the following elements (whose electronic configurations are given below) the one havinghighest ionisation energy is

a) 1233][ psNe b) 32

33][ psNe c) 2233][ psNe d) 3210

44,3 psd

26. The statement that is not correct for the periodic classification of elements isa) the properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbersb) non-metallic elements are lesser in number than metallic elementsc) the first ionisation energies of the elements along the period do not vary in a regular manner withthe increases in atomic numberd) for transition elements the d-subshells are filled with electrons monotonically with increase in atomicnumber

27. Which one of the following is smallest in size ?

a) +Na b)

−2O c)

−3N d) −

F

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Quest

28. Which of the following is the smallest cation ?

a) +Na b) +2

Mg c) +2Ca d)

+3Al

29. Which of the following ions has the lowest magnetic moment ?

a) +Cu b)

+2Ni c)

+3Co d) +2

Fe

30. In the isoelectronic species, the ionic radii (A) of −− 23,ON and −

F are respectively given by

a) 1.36, 1.40, 1.71 b) 1.36, 1.71, 1.40 c) 1.71, 1.40, 1.36 d) 1.71, 1.36, 1.40

31. Which of the following transitions involves maximum energy ?

a) )()( gMgM →− b) )()(

32gMgM

++→

c) )()(2

gMgM++

→ d) )()( gMgM+

→

32. The process requiring the absorption of energy is

a) −→ FF b) −

→ ClCl c) −→

2OO d) −

→ HH

33. Of cobalt and zinc salts, which are attracted in magnetic field ?a) Cobalt salts b) Zinc salts c) Both d) None

34. Which one of these is basic ?

a) 2CO b) 2SnO c) 2NO d) 2SO

35. The incorrect statement among the following isa) the first ionisation potential of Al is less than the first ionisation potential of Mgb) the second ionisation potential of Mg is greater than the second ionisation potential of Nac) the first ionisation potential of Na is less then the first ionisation potential of Mgd) the third ionisation potential of Mg is greater than the third ionisation potential of Al

36. The correct order of decreasing ionic size is

a) −+−+>>> FNaOMg

22 b) ++−−>>>

22MgNaOF

c) ++−−>>>

22MgNaFO d) ++−−

>>> NaMgFO22

37. The correct order of decreasing acidity property is

a) MgOOPONaZnO >>> 5222 b) 2252 ONaOPZnOMgO >>>

c) 2252 ONaMgOZnOOP >>> d) MgOZnOONaOP >>> 2252

38. The correct order of decreasing first ionisation potential is

a) NaSiAlMg >>> b) SiAlMgNa >>>

c) NaAlMgSi >>> d) MgAlSiNa >>>

39. The correct order of decreasing bond length is

a) 2222 NOFCl >>> b) 2222 ClFON >>>

c) 2222 NOClF >>> d) 2222 ClONF >>>

40. The correct order of decreasing size is

a)+−−

>>>22

CaArClS b)+−−

>>>22

CaClSAr

c) ArCaSCl >>>+−− 22 d) ArSClCa >>>

−−+2 2

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Quest

41. The correct order of decreasing acid strength is

a) 432 HClOHClOHClOHClO >>> b) HClOHClOHClOHClO >>> 243

c) HClOHClOHClOHClO >>> 324 d) HClOHClOHClOHClO >>> 234

42. The correct order of decreasing bond strength is

a) HIHBrHClHF >>> b) HFHBrHClHI >>>

c) HFHBrHIHCl >>> d) HBrHIHClHF >>>

43. The correct order increasing thermal stability is

a) 32 HOClOHOClOHOClOHOCl <<< b) HOClHOClOHOClOHOClO <<< 23

c) 23 HOClOHOClOHOClOHOCl <<< d) HOClHOClOHOClOHOClO <<< 23

44. The correct order of decreasing bond enthalpy is

a) 2222 ClFON >>> b) 2222 FClON >>>

c) 2222 ONClF >>> d) 2222 ONFCl >>>

45. The correct order of decreasing acidic character is

a) 32522 SOSiOONCO >>> b) 22523 SiOCOONSO >>>

c) 22523 COSiOONSo >>> d) 22352 SiOCOSOON >>>

46. The correct order of decreasing basic character is

a) OCSOKSrOMgO 22 >>> b) MgODCSSrOOK >>> 22

c) MgOSrOOKOCS >>> 22 d) MgOOKOCSSrO >>> 22

47. The correct order of increasing extent of hydrolysis is

a) 5432 PClSiClAlClMgCl <<< b) 2345 MgClAlClSiClPCl <<<

c) 4325 SiClAlClMgClPCl <<< d) 3245 AlClMgClSiClPCl <<<

48. The correct order of increasing Ionic character is

a) 2222 BaClCaClMgClSrCl <<< b) 2222 SrClBaClCaClMgCl <<<

c) 2222 SrClCaClMgClBaCl <<< d) 2222 MgClSrClCaClBaCl <<<

49. The correct order of increasing solubility in water is

a) 2222 BaFCaFMgFBeF <<< b) 2222 BeFMgFCaFBaF <<<

c) 2222 BeFBaFCaFMgF <<< d) 2222 CaFBaFMgFBeF <<<

Answers

1. d 2. b 3. d 4. b 5. b 6. b7. a 8. b 9. c 10. d 11. d 12. c13. d 14. a 15. c 16. d 17. a 18. b19. c 20. d 21. a 22. c 23. b 24. c25. b 26. d 27. a 28. d 29. a 30. c31. b 32. c 33. a 34. b 35. b 36. c37. c 38. c 39. a 40. b 41. d 42. a43. a 44. b 45. b 46. c 47. a 48. b49. a

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Quest

CHEMICAL BONDING

1. The types of bonds present in OHCuSO 24 5. are only

a) Electrovalent and covalentb) Electrovalent, and co-ordinate covalentc) Electrovalent, covalent and co-ordinate covalent d) Covalent and co-ordinate covalent

2. On hybridization of one s-and one p-orbitals we geta) Two mutually perpendicular orbitals b) Two orbitals at 180°c) Four orbitals directed tetrahedrally d) Three orbitals in plane

3. The pair of molecules forming strongest intermolecular hydrogen bonds are

a) 4SiH and 4SiF b) 333 CHClandCOCHCH

c) OHCH

O

−−||

and OHCCH

O

−−||

3 d) OH2 and 22OH

4. Hydrogen bonding is minimum ina) Ethanol b) Diethyl ether c) Ethyl chloride d) Triethyl amine

5. The molecule which has pyramidal shape is

a) 3PCl b) 3SO c) 3CO d) −3NH

6. Which of the following species has the highest bond order

a) 2O b) +2O c) −

2O d) −22O

7. The bonds present in 22ON are

a) Only ionic b) Covalent and co-ordinatec) Only covalent d) Covalent and ionic

8. At ordinary temperature and pressure, among halogens, chlorine is a gas, bromine is a liquid andiodine is a solid. This is because

a) The specific heat is in the order 222 IBrCl >>

b) Intermolecular forces among molecules of chlorine are the weakest and those in iodine are thestrongest

c) The order of density is 222 ClBrI >>

d) The order of stability is 222 ClBrI >>

9. Bond angle between two hybrid orbitals is 105°, % s-orbital character of hybrid orbital isa) Between 20-21% b) Between 19-20% c) Between 21-22% d) Between 22-23%

10. The bond that exists between 3NH and 3BF is called

a) Electrovalent b) Covalent c) Co-ordinate d) Hydrogen

11. Phosphate of metal M has the formula ( )243 POM . The formula for its sulphate would be

a) 4MSO b) ( )24SOM c) ( )

342 SOM d) ( )243 SOM

12. In 4XeF , hybridization of ‘Xe’ atom is

a) dsp3 b) 23

dsp c) 2sp d) 2

dsp

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Quest

13. Polarization is the distortion of the shape of an anion by an adjacently placed cation. Which of thefollowing statements is correcta) Maximum polarization is brought about by a cation of high chargeb) Minimum polarization is brought about by a cation of low radiusc) A large cation is likely to bring about a large degree of polarizationd) A small anion is likely to undergo a large degree of polarization

14. When two ice cubes are pressed over each other, they unite to form one cube. Which of the followingforces is responsible for holding them togethera) Vander Waal’s forces b) Covalent attractionc) Hydrogen bond formation d) Dipole-dipole interaction

15. Which of the following statements is wronga) Hybridization is the mixing of atomic orbitals prior to their combining into molecular orbitals

b)2

sp hybrid orbitals are formed from two p atomic orbitals and one s atomic orbital

c)2

dsp hybrid orbitals are all at 90° to one another

d)22

spd hybrid orbitals are directed towards the corners of a regular tetrahedron

16. Which bond angle, θ would result in the maximum dipole moment of the triatomic molecule XY2

shown below

θ

Y

YX

a) °= 90θ b) °=120θ c) °=150θ d) °=180θ

17. The enhanced force of cohesion in metals is due toa) The covalent linkages between atomsb) The electrovalent linkages between atomsc) The lack of exchange of valency electronsd) The exchange energy of mobile electrons

18. It is thought that atoms combine with each other such that the outermost orbit acquires a stableconfiguration of 8 electrons. If stability were attained with 6 electrons rather than with 8, what would bethe formula of the stable fluoride ion?

a)+3

F b) +F c) −

F d) −2F

19. The hybridization of carbon atoms in C-C single bond of 2CHCHCCH =−≡− is

a)33

spsp − b)32

spsp − c)2

spsp − d) spsp −3

20. The correct order of increasing polarisable ion is

a) −−−−FIBrCl ,,, b) −−−−

ClBrIF ,,,

c) −−−−IBrClF ,,, d) −−−−

FClBrI ,,,

21. The type of hybrid orbitals used by chlorine atom in −2CIO is

a) 3sp b) 2

sp c) sp d) None of these

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Quest

22. Which of the following have identical bond order

I.

+

3CH II. +

OH3 III. 3NH IV. −3CH

a) I and II b) III and IV c) I and III d) II, III and IV

23. The pair having similar geometry is

a) −33BO and −3

4PO b) −−3SO and −−

3CO

c) −3NO and −−

4SO d) −34PO and −

4ClO

24. A σ bonded molecule AB3 has T-shaped geometry. The number of lone pairs of electrons on the

central atom A isa) 2 b) 1 c) Zero d) 3

25. Among +NO , −−

2O , 2B and +2F , diamagnetic species are

a) −−2O and 2B b) +

2F and −−2O c) +

NO and −−2O d) 2B and +

2F

26. Among the following molecules, the one which is polar and has the central atom with 2

sp hybrid state

is

a) 32COH b) 4SiF c) 3BF d) 2HClO

27. Which contains both polar and non-polar bonds

a) ClNH4 b) HCN c) 22OH d) 4CH

28. Among the species 33333 ,,,, HNOHBFNONF +−, identify the iso structural pairs

a) ],[ 33−

NONF and ],[ 33+

OHBF b) [ ]33, HNNF and ],[ 33 BFNO−

c) ],[ 33+

OHNF and ],[ 33 BFNO− d) ],[ 33

+OHNF and [ ]33, BFHN

Directions: The questions consist of two statements each printed as Assertion and Reason. Whileanswering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses toencircle (A, B, C, D) as per instructions given belowThe questions below (29 to 40) consist of an "Assertion" in column 1 and the 'Reason' in column 2.Use the following key to choose the appropriate answer.a) If both assertion and reason are CORRECT, and reason is the CORRECT explanationof the assertion.b) If both assertion and reason are CORRECT, but reason is NOT the CORRECT explanation of theassertion.c) If assertion is CORRECT, but reason is INCORRECT.

d) If both assertion and reason are false.

29. Assertion: Although ,5PF 5PCl and 5PBr are known, the pentahalides of nitrogen have not been

observed.Reason: Phosphorus has lower electronegativity than nitrogen .a) A b) B c) C d) D

30. Assertion: yP and zP cannot combine to give molecular orbital.

Reason: Both yP and zP are dumb-bell shaped.

a) A b) B c) C d) D

Quest Tutorials 14


Quest

31. Assertion: In H-atom, the energy of 3d-level is lower than 4s level.

Reason: An orbital with lower value of ( )ln + has energy lower than the orbital having higher value of

( )ln + .

a) A b) B c) C d) D

32. Assertion: s-orbital cannot accommodate more than two electrons.Reason: s-orbitals are extremely poor shielders.a) A b) B c) C d) D

33. Assertion: +CO is more stable than CO while

+NO is less stable than NO.

Reason: Both CO and NO are colourless gases.a) A b) B c) C d) D

34. Assertion: When a magnet is dipped in liquid oxygen, some of it sticks to the magnet.Reason: Oxygen is paramagnetic in nature.a) A b) B c) C d) D

35. Assertion: +2N has shorter bond length than 2N .

Reason: +2N has one unpaired electron.

a) A b) B c) C d) D

36. Assertion: −−2O and 2F have identical bond order..

Reason: These are iso-electronic species.a) A b) B c) C d) D

37. Assertion: −33BO and −2

3CO possess plane triangular shape.

Reason: The central atoms in these species are in 2

sp state of hybridization.

a) A b) B c) C d) D

38. Assertion: Out of +Cu and

+2Ni ions, +

Cu is attracted by a magnetic field.

Reason: +

Cu ion does not have any unpaired electron.

a) A b) B c) C d) D

39. Assertion: +2

Zn ion is diamagnetic.

Reason: The electrons are lost from s4 orbital to form +2

Zn .

a) A b) B c) C d) D

40. Assertion: The electronic structure of 3O is

O

OO

⊕

Θ

Reason:

O

OO structure is not allowed because octet around ‘O’cannot be expanded.

a) A b) B c) C d) D

Answers

1. c 2. b 3. c 4. a 5. a 6. b7. b 8. b 9. d 10. c 11. a 12. b13. a 14. c 15. d 16. a 17. d 18. b19. c 20. c 21. a 22. d 23. d 24. a25. c 26. a 27. c 28. c 29. b 30. b31. b 32. c 33. d 34. a 35. d 36. a37. a 38. d 39. b 40. a

15 Quest Tutorials


Quest

GASEOUS STATE

1. vander Waal’s equation explains the behaviour ofa) Gaseous substances b) Ideal gas c) Real gas d) None

2. Equal weights of methane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty container at 25°C. The fraction of the

total pressure exerted by 2H is

a) 2/1 b) 9/8 c) 9/1 d) 17/16

3. When an ideal gas undergoes unrestrained expansion, no cooling occurs because the moleculesa) Are above the inversion temperature b) Exert no attractive force on each otherc) Do work equal to loss in kinetic energy d) Collide with less of energy

4. In Vander Waal’s equation of state for non-ideal gas, the term that accounts for inter-molecular forcesis

a) ( )bV − b)

+

2V

aP c) RT d) ( ) 1−

RT

5. The values of vander Waal’s constant ‘a’ for the gases 2O , 2N , 3NH and 4CH are 1.360, 1.390,

4.170 and 2.2532L atm mol-2 respectively. The gas which can most easily be liquefied is

a) 2O b) 2N c) 3NH d) 4CH

6. Helium atom is two times heavier than a hydrogen molecule at 298°K. The average kinetic energy ofhelium isa) Two times that the of hydrogen molecule b) Same as that of a hydrogen moleculec) Four times that of a hydrogen molecule d) Half that of a hydrogen molecule

7. The average velocity of an ideal gas molecule at 27°C is 0.3ms-1. The average velocity at 927° C willbea) 0.6 ms-1 b) 0.3 ms-1 c) 0.9 ms-1 d) 3.0 ms-1

8. The rate of diffusion of methane at a given temperature is twice that of a gas X. The molecular massof X isa) 64.0 b) 32.0 c) 4.0 d) 8.0

9. According to kinetic theory of gases, for a diatomic molecule,a) The pressure exerted by the gas is proportional to the mean velocity of the moleculeb) The pressure exerted by the gas is proportional to the root mean square velocity ofthe moleculec) The root mean square velocity of the molecule is inversely proportional to the temperatured) The mean translational kinetic energy of the molecule is proportional to the absolutetemperature

10. At constant volume for a fixed number of mole of a gas, the pressure of the gas increases with rise oftemperature due toa) Increase in average molecular speedb) Increase rate of collisions amongst moleculesc) Increase in molecular attractiond) Decrease in mean free path

11. A container contains certain gas of mass ‘m’ at high pressure. Some of the gas has been allowed toescape from the container and after some time, the pressure of the gas becomes half and its absolute

Quest Tutorials 16


Quest

temperature becomes rd3

2. The amount of gas escaped is

a) m3

2b) m

3

1c) m

4

1d) m

6

1

12. Which set of conditions represents the easiest way to liquefy a gasa) Low temperature and high pressure b) Low temperature and low pressurec) High temperature and low pressure d) High temperature and high pressure

13. A gas approaches an ideal behaviour whena) Compressed to a smaller volume at constant temperatureb) Temperature is raised keeping the volume constantc) More gas is introduced into the same temperatured) Volume is increased keeping the temperature constant

14. A balloon filled with methane ( )4CH is pricked with a sharp point and quickly plunged into a tank of

hydrogen at the same pressure. After sometime, the balloon will bea) Enlarged b) Collapsed

c) Remained unchanged in size d) Methane ( )4CH inside it

15. A closed vessel contains equal number of nitrogen and oxygen molecules at a pressure P mm. Ifnitrogen is removed from the system, then the pressure will be

a) P b) 2P c) P/2 d) 2P

16. The rates of diffusion of 2SO , 2CO , 3PCl and 3SO are in the following order

a) 2323 COSOSOPCl >>> b) 3322 SOPClSOCO >>>

c) 2332 COPClSOSO >>> d) 3322 PClSOSOCO >>>

17. The molecular weights of hydrogen and helium are 2 and 4 respectively. If 1 litre of hydrogen at 250°Cand 750 mm pressure contains N molecules, litres of helium under similar conditions of temp. andpressure will bea) 4 N b) N c) 2 N d) N/2

18. At what temperature, will the average speed of 4CH molecules have the same value as 2D at 300 K

a) 1200K b) 900K c) 600K d) 300K

19. A 50 litre closed vessel contains equal number of 2O and 2H molecules at a total pressure of 760

mm of Hg. When 2O is removed from the system,

a) The pressure increases to 1520 mm of Hg b) The pressure drops to 380 mmc) The pressure does not change d) The volume is decreased

20. Molecular attraction and size of the molecules in a gas can be neglected ata) High temperature and low pressure b) High pressure and low temperaturec) Ciritcal point d) High pressure

21. Two separate bulbs contain ideal gases A and B. The density of gas A is twice that of gas B. Themolecular weight of A is half that of gas B. The two gases are at the same temperature. The ratio of thepressure of A to that of gas B isa) 2 b) 1/2 c) 4 d) 1/4

22. The density of Argon will be lowest ata) STP b) 0°C, 2 atm c) 273°C, 1 atm d) 273°C, 2 atm

17 Quest Tutorials


Quest

23. The ratio between the root mean square speed of 2H at 50K and that of 2O at 800K is

a) 4 b) 2 c) 1 d) 1/4

24. One mole of 42ON (g) at 300K is kept in a closed container under one atmosphere pressure. It is

heated to 600K with 20% by mass of 42ON (g). The resultant pressure is

a) 1.2 atm b) 2.4 atm c) 2.0 atm d) 1.0 atm

25. Which one of the following statements is true according to Maxwell’s distribution of velocities in aclosed systema) Velocities of all gaseous molecules are the same at constant temperatureb) Fraction of molecules with higher velocities increases with rise in temperaturec) Fraction of molecules with higher velocities decreases with increase in temperatured) There will be no change in the distribution of velocities on changing the temperature.

26. Consider the following statementsi) Molecules of different gases have the same kinetic energy at a given temperatureii) The total kinetic energy for two moles of an ideal gas is equal to 3 RTiii) The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure and the specific heat at constant volumefor noble gases is 1.33

iv) The gas with a larger value of ratio of critical temperature to critical pressure ( )cc PT /

will have larger value of excluded volume (d). Of these statementsa) i, ii, and iii are correct b) ii, iii and iv are correctc) i, iii and iv are correct d) i, ii and iv are correct

27. Inversion temperature of a gas is the temperaturea) Above which no amount of pressure can liquefy a gasb) Below which a gas has to be cooled before it can show Joule-Thomson coolingc) At which on the application of pressure, a gas is completely converted into a liquid without havingto be in equilibriumd) At which the distinction between a liquid and a gas disappears.

28. A 0.5 litre flask contains gas ‘A’ and a one litre flask contains gas ‘B’ at the same temperature. Thedensity of gas ‘A’ is 3.0 gm/litre and that of a gas ‘B’ is 1.5 gm/litre. The molar mass of gass ‘A’ is one

half of that of molar mass of gas ‘B’. The ratio of pressures BA PP / exerted by the two gases is

a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1

29. The behaviour of a real gas is usually depicted by potting a graph between compressibility factor

( )idealrealm VVRTPVZ // == and pressure P at a constant temperature. At low temperature and

low pressure, Z is usually less than one. This fact can be explained by vander Waal’s equation whena) Constants ‘a’ and ‘b’ are negligible b) Constants ‘a’ is negligible and not ‘b’c) Constants ‘b’ is negligible and not ‘a’d) Constants ‘a’ and ‘b’ both are not negligible

30. Which of the following curves does not represent Boyle’s Law

a) P

V

b) Log P

Vlog

c)

V/1

P

d)

P

V

31. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas is mixed with one mole of an ideal diatomic gas. The molarspecific heat of the mixture at constant volume isa) 3 cal b) 4 cal c) 8 cal d) 5 cal

Quest Tutorials 18


Quest

32. The compressibility factor for an ideal gas isa) 1.5 b) 1.0 c) 2.0 d) ∞

33. ‘X’ ml of 2H gas effuses through a hole in a container in 5 seconds. The time taken for the effusion of

the same volume of the gas specified below under identical conditions is

a) 10 seconds; He b) 20 seconds; 2O c) 25 seconds; CO d) 55 seconds; 2CO

34. According to Graham’s Law, at a given temperature, the ratio of diffusion rA/r

B of gases A and B is

given by

a) ( ) ( )2

1// BABA MMPP b) ( ) ( )

2

1// BABA PPMM

c) ( ) ( )2

1// ABBA MMPP d) ( ) ( )

2

1// ABBA PPMM

35. Partial pressure of hydrogen in a flask containing 2gm hydrogen, 16gm oxygen and 14gm nitrogen is

a) Equal to total pressure b) th8

1 of the total pressure

c) Half of the total pressure d) th8

1 of the total pressure

36. The rms velocity of hydrogen is 7 times of rms velocity of nitrogen. If T is the temperature of the gas

a) ( ) ( )22 NTHT = b) ( ) ( )22 NTHT >

c) ( ) ( )22 NTHT < d) ( ) ( )22 7 NTHT =

37. The compressibility of a gas is less than unity at STP. Therefore

a) 4.22>mV litres b) 4.22<mV litres c) 4.22=mV litres d) 4.22≡mV litres

In following questions from 38 to 50, there are two statements given labelled as Assertion ‘A’ andReason R. Examine both the statements and mark the correct choice according to instructions givenbelowA) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.B) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not a correct explanation of Assertion

C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.D) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.

38. Assertion (A): A mixture of ideal gases on liquefaction gives an ideal solution.Reason (R): An ideal gas can not at all be liquefied.a) A b) B c) C d) D

39. Assertion (A): At high pressure and low temperature, real gases deviate from ideal behaviour.Reason (R): Attractive forces among gas molecules increase under these condition.a) A b) B c) C d) D

40. Assertion (A): Pressure exerted by gas in a container increases with increasing temperature of thegas.Reason (R): With rise in temperature, the average speed of gas molecules increases.a) A b) B c) C d) D

41. Assertion (A): At inversion temperature of a gas Joule-Thomson effect is zero.Reason (R): At inversion temperature, a real gas obeys Boyle’s Law at a wide range of pressurea) A b) B c) C d) D

19 Quest Tutorials


Quest

42. Assertion (A): At Boyle temperature, a real gas obeys Boyle’s Law at a wide range of pressure.Reason (R): Boyle’s temperature of a gas is half of its inversion temperature.a) A b) B c) C d) D

43. Assertion (A): At 30°C, the kinetic energy of molecules of He(g) and UF6(g) is equal.

Reason (R): Kinetic energy of molecules of gases is independent of molar mass of the gas.a) A b) B c) C d) D

44. Assertion (A): At critical temperature, the meniscus of a liquid disappears.Reason (R): Above critical temperature, a substance can exist as a gas only.a) A b) B c) C d) D

45. Assertion (A): Under ordinary conditions, helium shows negative Joule-Thomson effect.Reason (R): Inversion temperature of helium is very low.a) A b) B c) C d) D

46. Assertion (A): The heat capacity of a polyatomic gas is higher than mono atomic gas.

Reason (R): The value of poisson ratio ( )vp CC / for gases decreases with increase in their atomic-

ity.a) A b) B c) C d) D

47. Assertion (A): Real gases obey Vander Waal’s equation of state.Reason (R): There are no forces of attraction acting between real gas molecules.a) A b) B c) C d) D

48. Assertion (A): The pressure exerted by a gas on the walls of the container increases on decreasingthe volume of the gas.Reason (R): It is due to increase in molecular speed of gas molecules.a) A b) B c) C d) D

49. Assertion (A): Compressibility factor for real gases may be higher or lower than one.Reason (R): It depends upon the temperature and pressure conditions of the real gases.a) A b) B c) C d) D

50. Assertion (A): Kinetic energy of gas molecules is zero at zero kelvin.Reason (R): At absolute zero, all types of molecular motion cease.a) A b) B c) C d) D

Answers

1. c 2. b 3. b 4. b 5. c 6. b7. a 8. a 9. d 10. a 11. c 12. a13. d 14. a 15. c 16. d 17. c 18. a19. b 20. a 21. c 22. c 23. c 24. b25. b 26. d 27. b 28. a 29. c 30. d31. b 32. b 33. b 34. c 35. c 36. c37. b 38. d 39. a 40. a 41. c 42. b43. a 44. b 45. b 46. b 47. c 48. c49. a 50. a

Quest Tutorials 20


Quest

STOICHIOMETRY

1. The haemoglobin from red corpuscles of most mammals contain approximately 0.33 % of iron bymass. The molecular mass of haemoglobin is 67200. The number of iron atoms in each molecule ofhaemoglobin isa) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

2. 10 mL of a solution of 22OH liberated 0.5 g of 2I from KI solution. The percentage of 22OH in the

solution isa) 0.27 b) 0.67 c) 0.47 d) 0.87

3. The quantity of ammonium sulphate necessary for the production of ammonia gas sufficient to neutralisea solution containing 292 g of HCl isa) 272 g b) 408 g c) 528 g d) 1056 g

4. The volume of oxygen required for complete oxidation of 2.0 litre of methane at N.T.P isa) 4 litre b) 12.25 litre c) 1 litre d) 3 litre

5. 100 mL of 3PH when decomposed produces phosphorus and hydrogen. The change in volume is

a) 100 mL decrease b) 100 mL increase c) 50 mL increase d) 50 mL decrease

6. 7.46 g of KCl is heated in excess of 42SOH and 2MnO . The gas evolved is passed through KI

solution. The amount of iodine set free will bea) 12.7 g b) 3.2 g c) 6.4 g d) 18.9 g

7. If 0.5 mole of 2BaCl is mixed with 0.20 mole of 43PONa . The maximum number of moles 243 )(POBa

that can be formed isa) 0.10 b) 0.20 c) 0.50 d) 0.70

8. 12 g of magnesium (At. mass = 24) will react with an acid to give

a) one mole of 2H b) one mole of 2O c) half mole of 2H d) half mole of 2O

9. A metal oxide is reduced by heating it in a stream of hydrogen. It is found that after complete reduction,3.15 g of the oxide have yielded 1.05 g of the metal. We may deduce thata) the atomic mass of the metal is 8 b) the atomic mass of the metal is 4c) the equivalent mass of the metal is 8 d) the equivalent mass of the metal is 4

10. At NTP, 10 litre of hydrogen sulphide gas reacted with 10 litre of sulphur dioxide gas. The volume ofgas, after the reaction is complete, would bea) 5 litre b) 10 litre c)15 litre d) 20 litre

11. 2.0 g mixture of sodium carbonate and sodium bicarbonate on heating to constant weight gave 224

mL of 2CO at NTP. The % weight of sodium bicarbonate in the mixture is

a) 50 b) 54 c) 80 d) 84

12. Assuming that petrol is octane )( 188HC and has a density of 0.8 g 1−

mL , 1.425 litre of petrol on

combustion will consumea) 100 moles of oxygen b) 124 moles of oxygenc) 150 moles of oxygen d) 175 moles of oxygen

13. Volume of oxygen needed for complete combustion of 20 mL of hydrocarbon yxHC will be

a) mLyx )4/( + b) mLyx )4/(20 + c) mLyx )4/(20/1 + d) none

21 Quest Tutorials


Quest

14. Hydrogen evolved at N.T.P on complete reaction of 27 g of aluminium with excess of aqueous

NaOH would be

a) 22.4 litre b) 44.8 litre c) 67.2 litre d) 33.6 litre

15. The volume of 2Cl obtained when 4.35 g 2MnO react completely with concentrated HCl (at. mass

Mn = 55)a) 4.48 litre b) 2.24 litre c) 1.12 litre d) 0.56 litre

16. Cyclohexanol is dehydrated to cyclohexane on heating with conc. 42SOH . If the yield of the reaction

is 75%, how much cyclohexane will be obtained from 100 g of cyclohexanol ?a) 16.5 g b) 75.0 g c) 20.0 g d) 14.0 g

17. When 1 g of zinc is treated separately with excess of 42SOH and excess of NaOH , the ratio of

volume of 2H evolved is

a) 1 : 1 b) 1 : 2 c) 2 : 1 d) 3 : 2

18. The minimum quantity of SH2 in grams needed to precipitate 63.5 g of copper ions will be nearly

a) 63.5 g b) 34.0 g c) 31.75 g d) 20.0 g

19. If 2 moles of OHHC 52 completely burn to 2CO and water, the mass of carbon dioxide formed is

abouta) 88 g b) 176 g c) 44 g d) 132 g

20. The amount of ammonium nitrate that should be decomposed for getting 22.4 litre nitrous oxide isa) 20 g b) 24 g c) 60 g d) 80 g

21. The volume of oxygen at N.T.P obtained by electrolysis of 18g of water will bea) 22.4 litre b) 5.6 litre c) 11.2 litre d) 44.8 litre

22. One mole of calcium phosphide on reaction with excess water givesa) 1 mole of phosphine b) 2 moles of phosphinec) 2 moles of phosphoric acid d) 1 mole of phosphorus pentoxide

23. Amount of oxalic acid required to prepare 250 mL of N/10 solution (mol. mass of oxalic acid = 126) isa) 1.5759 g b) 3.15 g c) 15.75 g d) 63.0 g

24. When 4KMnO is reduced with oxalic acid in acidic medium, the oxidation number of Mn changes

froma) 7 to 4 b) 6 to 4 c) 7 to 2 d) 4 to 2

25. For the half cell reaction OHBreHBrO 223 610122 +→+++− , the equivalent mass of sodium bro-

mate isa) equal to its mol. mass b) 1/3 of its mol. massc) 1/6 of its mol. mass d) 1/5 of its mol. mass

26. In the reaction −−−

+→+264

2322 22 OSIOSI , equivalent mass of iodine is

a) equal to its molecular mass b) 1/2 of the molecular massc) 1/4 of the molecular mass d) twice of the molecular mass

27. A molal solution is one that contains one mole of the solute ina) 1000 g of the solvent b) One litre of the solvent

Quest Tutorials 22


Quest

c) One litre of the solution d) 22.4 litre of the solvent

28. In alkaline conditions, 4KMnO reacts as follows ][222 2424 OOHMnOKKOHKMnO ++→+ .

Therefore, its equivalent mass will bea) 31.6 b) 52.7 c) 72.0 d) 158.0

29. 0.1 N solution of 32CONa is being titrated with 0.1 N HCl , the best indicator to be used is

a) potassium ferricyanide b) phenolphthaleinc) methyl orange d) litmus

30. A solution containing +2Fe ions is titrated with 4KMnO solution. Indicator used will be

a) Phenolphthalein b) methyl orange c) litmus d) none of the above

31. If 200 mL of N/10 HCl were added to 1g calcium carbonate, what would remain after the reaction ?

a) 3CaCO b) HCl

c) Neither of the two d) Part of both

32. 200mL of 3N HCl were mixed with 200mL of 6N 42SOH solution. The final normality of 42SOH in the

resultant solution will bea) 9 N b) 3 N c) 6 N d) 2 N

33. 100 mL of 0.3 N HCl were mixed with 200 mL of 0.6 N 42SOH solution. The final normality of acid was

a) 0.4 N b) 0.5 N c) 0.6 N d) 0.9 N

34. Weight of iodine required to oxidise 500 mL N 322 OSNa solution, is

a) 6.35 g b) 63.5 g c) 127 g d) 254 g

35. In an experiment, 20 mL of a decinormal HCl solution was added to 15 mL of a decinormal 3AgNO

solution. AgCl was precipitated out and excess of acid was titrated with N/20 NaOH solution. The

volume of NaOH required wasa) 10 mL b) 20 mL c) 30 mL d) 5 mL

36. When 10 mL of 10 M solution of 42SOH and 100 mL of 1M solution of NaOH are mixed, the

resulting solution will bea) acidic b) neutral c) alkaline d) cannot be predicted

37. The normality of a 26% mass/vol solution of ammonia (density 0.885 g/mL) is approximatelya) 1.5 b) 4.0 c) 0.4 d) 15.3

38. Which one of these solutions has the highest normality ?

a) 8 g KOH per 100mL b) 0.5 M 42SOH

c) 6 g of NaOH per 100 mL d) N 43POH

39. 1 g of a metal required 50 mL of 0.5 N HCl to dissolve it. The equivalent mass of the metal isa) 25 b) 50 c) 20 d) 40

40. What volume of 2CO at N.T.P will be liberated by the action of 100 mL of 0.2 N HCl on 3CaCO ?

a) 112 mL b) 224 mL c) 448 mL d) 120 mL

41. The normality of 10% (mass/volume) acetic acid isa) 1 N b) 10 N c) 1.7 N d) 0.83 N

23 Quest Tutorials


Quest

42. 0.16 g of dibasic acid required 25 mL of decinormal NaOH solution for complete neutralisation. Themolecular mass of the acid isa) 32 b) 64 c) 128 d) 256

43. 5 mL of N HCl, 20 mL of N/2 42SOH and 30 mL of N/3 3HNO are mixed together and volume made

to one litre. The normality of the resulting solution isa) N/5 b) N/10 c) N/20 d) N/40

44. The equivalent mass of 4MnSO is half of its molecular mass when it is converted to

a) 32OMn b) 2MnO c) −

4MnO d) −24MnO

45. For the redox reaction, OHCOMnHOCMnO 2222

424 ++→++++−− the correct coefficients of the

reactants for the balanced reaction are

−

4MnO−2

42OC +H

a) 2 5 16b) 16 5 2c) 5 16 2d) 2 16 5

46. What volume of N/2 and N/10 HCl should be taken in order to make a 2 litre solution of N/5 strength ?a) 0.5 litre N/2 HCl and 1.5 litre of N/10 HCl b) 1 litre N/2 HCl and 1 litre N/10 HCl c)1.5 litre N/2 HCl and 0.5 litre N/10 HCl d) 0.7 litre N/2 HCl and 1.3 litre N/10 HCl

47. The molar concentration of the chloride ion in the solution obtained by mixing 300 mL of 3.0 M NaCl

and 200 mL of 4.0 M solution of 2BaCl is

a) 1.6 M b) 1.8 M c) 5.0 M d) 0.5 M

48. The normality of 0.3 M phosphorus acid )( 33POH is

a) 0.1 b) 0.9 c) 0.3 d) 0.6

Answers

1. d 2. c 3. c 4. a 5. c 6. a7. a 8. c 9. d 10. a 11. d 12. a13. b 14. d 15. c 16. a 17. a 18. b19. b 20. d 21. c 22. b 23. a 24. c25. d 26. b 27. a 28. d 29. c 30. d31. c 32. b 33. b 34. b 35. a 36. a37. d 38. c 39. d 40. b 41. c 42. c43. d 44. b 45. a 46. a 47. c 48. d

Quest Tutorials 24


Quest

CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

1. The rate of chemical reaction

(a) Increases as the reaction proceeds (b) Decreases as the reaction proceeds

(c) May increase or decrease during the reaction

(d) Remains constant as the reaction proceeds

2. For the equilibrium reaction 2NO2 ,kj61)g(ON 42 + increase of temperature would

(a) favour the formation of 42ON (b) favour the decomposition of 42ON

(c) no effect on equilibrium (d) stop the reaction

3. HI was heated in a sealed tube at 400°C till the equilibrium was reached. HI was found to be

22% decomposed. The equilibrium constant for the dissociation is

(a) 1.99 (b) 0.282 (c) 0.0199 (d) 0.0796

4. When 3NaNO is heated in a closed vessel, 2O is liberated and 2NaNO is left behind.At

equilibrium

(a) Addition of 3NaNO favours the forward reaction

(b) Addition of 3NaNO favours reverse reaction

(c) Increasing temperature favours forward reaction (d) all of the above

5. At equilibrium, which of the following reactions is not affected by pressure ?

(a) )g(O2

1)g(N

2

122 + NO(g) (b) )g(PCl5 )g(Cl)g(PCl 23 +

(c) )g(NO2 2 )g(ON 42 (d) )g(ClSO 22 )g(Cl)g(SO 22 +

6. The equilibrium constant of a reversible reaction at a given temperature

(a) depends on initial concentration of the reactants

(b) depends on the concentration of the products at equilibrium

(c) does not depend on the initial concentration

(d) it is not a characteristic of the reaction

7. An example of reversible reaction is

(a) )g(H)aq(NaOH2)l(OH2)s(Na2 22 +→+

(b) )aq(NaNO)s(AgCl)aq(NaCl)aq(AgNO 33 +→+

(c) )aq(NaNO)aq(KCl)aq(NaCl)aq(KNO 33 +→+

(d) )aq(NaNO2)s(PbI)aq(NaI2)aq()NO(Pb 3223 +→+

8. For a reversible reaction if the concentration of the reactants are doubled then equilibrium

constant will

(a) also be doubled (b) be halved (c) becomes one third (d) remains same

9. If the pressure in the reversible reaction 22 ON + 2NO + heat, is increased then equilib-

rium constant would

(a) increase (b) decrease (c) remains same (d) none

10. If the volumes of the reactants and products are same, the equilibrium state is not affected by

(a) temperature (b) pressure (c) concentration (d) none

25 Quest Tutorials


Quest

11. In which of the following cases, does the reaction go farthest to completion ?

(a) 210K = (b) K = 1 (c) K = 10 (d) 210K −=

12. For the reaction 42ON 2NO, degree of dissociation is α . The number of moles at equilib-

rium will be

(a) 2)1( α− (b) )1( α+ (c) 3 (d) 1

13. In case of reaction 5PCl ,ClPCl 23 + the degree of dissociation x is related to the initial

pressure of )p(PCl5 as,

(a)p

1xα (b)

p

1xα (c) 2p/1xα (d) 2pxα

14. Pure 3NH is placed in a vessel at temperature where its dissociation constant is appreciable.

At equilibrium

(a) Kp does not change significantly with pressure

(b) Concentration of 2H is less than that of 2N

(c) Concentration of 3NH does not change with pressure

(d) Kp is dependent of pressure

15. The Kc for the reaction 2HI(g) )g(I)g(H 22 + at room temperature is 2.85 and that at

698K is .104.1 2−× This indicates that

(a) HI is an exothermic compound (b) HI is resonance stabilised

(c) HI is very stable at room temperature

(d) HI is relatively less stable than 2H and 2I

16. A large increase in the rate of reaction for an increase in temperature is due to

(a) increase in the number of collisions

(b) increase in the number of activated molecules

(c) lowering of activation energy (d) shortening of the mean free path

17. At equilibrium the vapour pressure of a liquid in a closed vessel depends only on

(a) temperature (b) concentration (c) pressure (d) volume

18. For the gas phase reaction 2NO ;ON 22 + Kcals5.43H −=∆ . Which one of the following

is true for ?)g(NO2)g(O)g(N 22 =+

(a) K increase as T decrease (b) K decreases as T decreases

(c) K is independent of T (d) K varies with the addition of NO

19. For the reaction 5PCl ,ClPCl 23 + if the degree of dissociation of 5PCl is α at equilib-

rium pressure P, then Kp for the reaction is

(a) p1/K 22p α+α= (b) 222

p 1/pK α−α=

(c) 22p 1/PK α−α= (d) 22

p 1/PK α−α=

Quest Tutorials 26


Quest

20. 4 moles of 2CO were heated in 3dm1 . It dissociates into CO by 25% and into 2O . The number

of moles of CO produced are

(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.0 (d) 4.0

21. 1 mole of 2N is mixed with 3 moles of 2H in a litre flask. If 50% 2N is converted into 3NH

then the total number of moles of the gas at eq. are

(a) 1.5 (b) 4.5 (c) 3.0 (d) 6.0

22. At equilibrium, the addition of −CN (aq.) in the reversible reaction HCN(aq) =

)aq(CN)aq(H −++ would

(a) increase equilibrium constant (b) decrease eq. constant

(c) decrease +H ion concentration (d) decrease HCN(aq) concentration

23. At 27°C and 1 atm., 42ON is 20% dissociated into 2NO . What is the value of pK under

these conditions ?

(a) 17 atm. (b) 0.17 atm. (c) 1.7 atm. (d) 0.07 atm.

24. When a reversible reaction is at equilibrium, one of the product’s concentration is decreased.

The eq. state

(a) Shifts in the direction of forward reaction

(b) shifts in the direction of backward reaction

(c) Moves in the direction of both reactions (d) is not affected

25. On adding 3NH to pure water, the concentration of already present species decreases. The

species is

(a) +OH3 (b) −2O (c) −OH (d) OH2

26. The normal vapour density of 5PCl is 104.25. Its V.D. at 25°C when it is 80% dissociated will

be

(a) 120 (b) 52 (c) 57.9 (d) 86

27. At 490°C the equilibrium constant for the synthesis of HI is 50. The value of K for dissocia-

tion of HI will be

(a) 0.2 (b) 0.02 (c) 20.0 (d) 2.0

28. The volume of the reaction vessel containing an equilibrium mixture in the reaction

22ClSO 2SO (g) + )g(Cl2 is increased. When the equilibrium is re-established, the amount

of

(a) )g(SO2 will have decreased (b) )g(ClSO 22 will have increased

(c) 2Cl (g) will have increased (d) 2Cl (g) will have remain unchanged

27 Quest Tutorials


Quest

29. The equilibrium constant K for a reaction BA + C+D is 2101 −× at 298K and is 2 at 373K.

The chemical process resulting in the formation of C and D is

(a) exothermic (b) endothermic (c) unpredictable

(d) there is no relationship between K and H∆ .

30. The equilibrium constant is 7108.3 −× and 6pH

= for the reaction OH2CO 22 + −3HCO +

.OH3+ The ratio of −]HCO[ 3 / ]CO[ 2 is

(a) 0.38 (b) 3.8 (c) 18108.3 −× (d) 13.4

31. A certain weak acid has a dissociation constant of 4100.1 −× . The equilibrium constant for its

reaction with a strong base is

(a) 10100.1 −× (b) 4101 −

× (c) 10101× (d) 14101 −×

32. At 300K, the most stable reaction is

(a) 2NO(g) );g(O)g(N 22 + 30c 102.2K ×= moles 1

L−

(b) )g(ON2 2-133

c22 L moles105.3K);g(O)g(N2 ×=+

(c) )g(NO2 2-116

c22 L moles1071.6K);g(O2)g(N ×=+

(d) )g(ON2 52-134

c22 L moles102.1K);g(O5)g(N2 ×=+

33. The equilibrium )g(ClSO 22 )g(Cl)g(SO 22 + is attained at 25°C in a closed container

and helium is introduced. Which of the following statement is correct ?

(a) concentration of 2SO is reduced (b) more 2Cl is formed

(c) concentrations of 2SO , 2Cl and 2SO 2Cl changes

(d) none of these

34. The vapour density of 5PCl is 104.16 but when heated to 230°C, its V.D. is reduced to 62. The

degree of dissociation of 5PCl at this temperature will be

(a) 6.8% (b) 68% (c) 46% (d) 64%

35. At 200°C ammonium carbamate )NH COO NH( 42 gives a mixture of vapours of NH3 and

2CO with density 13.0. The degree of dissociation of ammonium carbamate will be

(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 0.25 (d) 0.5

36. The reaction )g(H)g(HC 242 + k7.32H);g(HC 62 −=∆ cals is carried out in a vessel. The

equilibrium concentration of 42HC can be raised by

(a) adding some 62HC (b) increasing the temperature

(c) decreasing the pressure (d) all of these

Quest Tutorials 28


Quest

37. In the reaction 2X(g) + Y(g) = Z(g) + 80 cals, which of the following combination of pressure and

temperature gives the highest yield of Z at equilibrium ?

(a) 100 atms and 100°C (b) 500 atms and 100°C

(c) 500 atms and 500°C (d) 100 atms and 500°C

38. The reaction 22 OSO2 + 3SO2 is exothermic. The yield of 3SO will be maximum if

(a) temperature is reduced and pressure is increased

(b) temperature is increased and pressure is kept constant

(c) both temp and pressure are increased (d) both temp. and pressure are decreased

39. When calcium acetate is dissolved in water, heat is evolved. If the temperature is raised, the

solubility of calcium acetate

(a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains same (d) none

40. In the system Liquid vapour, the increase in pressure will favour the

(a) condensation (b) evaporation (c) sublimation (d) none

41. When pressure is applied to equilibrium : ice = water, which of the following will occur?

(a) equilibrium will not be disturbed (b) more water will be formed

(c) more water will be formed (d) more ice will be formed

42. For the following equilibrium 42ON 2NO2 in gaseous phase, 2NO is 50% of the total

volume when equilibrium is set up. Hence percent dissociation of 42ON is :

(a) 50% (b) 25% (c) 66.66% (d) 33.33%

43. Equilibrium constant for the reaction

++ HOHNH4 OHNH 24 +

+

is .108.1 9× Hence equilibrium constant for OH)aq(NH 23 + −+

+ OHNH4 is :

(a) 5108.1 −× (b) 5108.1 × (c) 9108.1 −

× (d) 101055.5 −×

44. 22 OSO2 + 3SO2 . Starting with 2 mol 2SO and 1 mol 2O in 1 L flask, mixture required

0.4 mol −4MnO in acidic medium. Hence cK is :

(a) 2 (b) 0.4 (c) 1.6 (d) 2.6

45. For )s(HSNH4 ),g(SH)g(NH 23 + if ,atm64K 2P = equilibrium pressure of mixture is:

(a) 8 atm (b) 16 atm (c) 64 atm (d) 4 atm

46. In a system )s(A .CB2 )g()g( + If the concentration of C at equilibrium is increased by a

factor of 2, it will cause the equilibrium concentration of B to change to

(a) two times the original value (b) one half of its original value

(c) 22 times its original value (d)22

1 times

29 Quest Tutorials

H e a d O f f i c e : E-16/289, Sector-8, Rohini, New Delhi. Ph. 65395439

Quest

47. For 42ON 22 NO,NO2 is 50% of the total volume at equilibrium in 1 litre flask. Hence starting

with 1 mole of 42ON at constant temperature, equilibrium constant cK is

(a) 2.66 (b) 0.33 (c) 1.00 (d) 166

48. Which can be explained as applications of Le-Chatlier’s Principle:

(a) transport of oxygen by hemoglobin in blood (b) removal of 2CO from tissues by blood

(c) tooth decay due to use of sweet substances (d) all

49. Two systems )g(PCl5 )g(PCl3 + )g(Cl2 and )g(COCl2 CO(g) + )g(Cl2 are simulta-

neously in equilibrium in a vessel at constant volume. If some CO is introduced into the

vessel, then at the new equilibrium, the concentration of

(a) 5PCl is greater (b) 3PCl remains unchanged

(c) 5PCl is less (d) 2Cl is greater

50. Under what pressure conditions will 4CuSO . OH5 2 be efflorescent at 25°C. pK value of the

reaction 4CuSO . OH5 2 (s) 4CuSO . )g(OH2)s(OH3 22 + is 24atm10086.1

−× at 25°C.

(a) less than 23.8 mm(Hg) (b) less than 7.92 mm Hg

(c) at 23.8mm Hg (d) at 7.92 mm Hg

51. A(solid) A(liquid) – X Kcals Volume of A(solid)> volume of A(liquid).

If pressure is increased to the system then

(a) melting point of sulphur is increased

(b) melting point of sulphur is decreased

(c) melting point of sulphur remains unchanged

(d) melting point at first decreased then it increases

52. If at constant pressure argon is introduced in the system 22 H3N + 3NH2 it would

(a) reduce equilibrium constant value of the reaction

(b) increase equilibrium constant value of the reaction

(c) reduce the amount of 3NH formed

(d) increase the amount of 3NH formed

53. Two moles of an equimolar mixture of two alcohols 1R OH & OHR 2 are esterified with one

mole of acetic acid. If 80% of the acid is consumed and the quantities of ester formed under

equilibrium are in the ratio of 3:2, what is the value of equilibrium constant for the esterifica-

tion of OHR1 − ?

(a) ~ 3.7 (b) ~ 2.9 (c) ~3.2 (d) ~3.0

54. If xK be the equilibrium constant when active mass of the reactants and products are ex-

pressed in mole fraction then the relation between xK & cK is

(a) ncx )P(KK

∆= (b) n

cx )P(KK ∆−=

Quest Tutorials 30


Quest

(c)

n

cxP

RTKK

∆

= (d) ( ) n

cx RTKK∆

=

55. The pressure necessary for obtaining 50% dissociation of 5PCl at 250°C is

(a) three times of pK (b) two times of pK (c) half of pK (d) four times of pK

56. −+ II2

−3I . This reaction is set up in aqueous medium. We start with one mole of 2I and

0.5 mole of −I in 1 litre flask. After equilibrium is reached, excess of 3AgNO gave 0.25 mole

of yellow precipitate. Equilibrium constant of the reaction is

(a) 1.33 (b) 2.66 (c) 2.00 (d) 3.00

57. For the reaction : 2HI(g) );g(I)g(H 22 + the degree of dissociation )(α of HI(g) is related

to equilibrium constant PK by the expression

(a)2

K21 P+(b)

2

K21 P+(c)

P

P

K21

K2

+(d)

P

P

K21

K2

+

58. The equilibrium constant CK for the following reaction at 700K is 8105×

)g(Br)g(H 22 + 2HBr

If a mixture of 0.8 mol of 3.0,H2 mol of 2Br and 0.1 mol of HBr are heated to 700K, the

amount of HBr at equilibrium is

(a) 0.1 mol (b) 0.2 mol (c) 0.3 mol (d) 0.4 mol

Answers

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (c)

7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (b)

13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b)

19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a)

25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (a)

31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (d)

37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (a) 41. (d) 42. (c)

43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (d)

49. (c) 50. (b) 51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (a) 54. (c)

55. (a) 56. (a) 57. (d) 58. (d)

31 Quest Tutorials


Quest

CHEMICAL KINETICS

1. For a certain first order gas phase reaction )g()g()g( CBA +→ , the time required for half

the initial amount to be decomposed is 10.4 minutes. If the initial pressures of A is 400mm of

Hg, the time required to reduce the partial pressure of A to 50mm of Hg is

(a) 15.6 min (b) 20.8 min (c) 31.2 min (d) 41.6 min

2. The rate of reaction FA → increase by a factor of 5.18 when the concentration of A is tripled.

What is the order of the reaction ?

(a)4

3(b)

3

2(c)

2

3(d) 2.5

3. For reaction BA → 80% A is decomposed in 1 hr. 96% is decomposed in 2 hrs. 99.2% is

decomposed in 3 hrs. 99.84% is decomposed in 4 hours. What is the order of the reaction ?

(a) zero (b) 1st

(c) 2nd (d) can not be predicted

4. For the following reaction the rate expression is “rate ]B[]A[ 2∝ rate constant is

1222secmolL103

−−−×

BCBACB2A2 2 +→++

Relation between the initial concentration of the reactants are 3.0C 2/1BA 000 === moles/

lit. The rate of reaction after 25% ‘C’ converted into products is

(a) 1228 secmolL1025.11 −−−× (b) 1222 secmoleL102.3 −−−

×

(c) 0 (d) none of these

5. An endothermic reaction BA → have an activation energy 15 kcal/mol and the heat of the

reaction is 5kcal/mol. The activation energy of the reaction AB → is

(a) 20 kcal/mol (b) 15 kcal/mol (c) 10 kcal/mol (d) zero

6.C

B

A

1K

2KFor this reaction k = total rate constant = 410− 1sec− % of B = 20

What is the value of 1K

(a) 14 sec108 −−× (b) 13 sec108 −−

× (c) 13 sec102 −−× (d) 15 sec102 −−

×

7. By what factor would the rate of a reaction for which the activation energy is 35 cal 1mol− be

increased by a temperature rise of 10° from 25° to 35°C.

(a) 5.81 (b) 6.81 (c) 7.2 (d) 1.01

8. RT/Eae− indicates

(a) no. of collision (b) no. of effective collision

(c) fraction of the reaction happened

(d) fraction of the molecule having energy higher that aE .

Quest Tutorials 32


Quest

9. A complex reaction ZYX2 →+ takes place in two steps

.ZW2X,W2YX 21 kk→+→+

If ,KK 21 << order of reaction will be

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) can’t say

10. t21

of a 3/2 order reaction is represented by t21 .

a

1

mα What is the value of m

(a) 1/2 (b) 1 (c) 3/2 (d) –3/2

11. A reaction takes place in three steps, the rate constants are 321 K&K,K . The over all rate

constant

2

31

K

KKK = . If energy of activations are 40,30 & 20 kJ, the over all energy of activa-

tion is

(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 30 (d) 60

12. Rate constant of a reaction with virus is .s103.3 14 −−× Time required for the virus to become

75% inactivated is:

(a) 35 min (b) 70 min (c) 105 min (d) 17.5 min

13. If the fermentation of sugar in an enzymatic solution that is 0.12M, the concentration of the

sugar is reduced to 0.06 M in 10 h and to 0.03M in 20h, what is the order of the reaction:

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0

14. The decomposition of ON2 into 2N and 2O in the presence of gaseous argon follows second

order kinetics with T/290001111 e)sLmol100.5(k −−−×=

Hence aE (energy of activation) is:

(a) kcal100.5 11× (b) 29000 kcal (c) 58 kcal (d) –29000cal

15. When rate constant is equal to rate of the reaction, order is :

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0

16. For the reaction ,NOBr2BrNO2 2 →+ the following mechanism has been given

2slow

2 NOBrBrNO →+ NOBr2NONOBrslow

2 →+

Hence rate law is :

(a) ]Br[]NO[k 22 (b) ]Br][NO[k 2 (c) ]NO][NOBr[k 2 (d) 2

2 ]Br][NO[k

17. 1a

1kJmol50E,kJmol10H,BA

−−=−=∆→ then aE of AB → will be:

(a) 40 kJ 1mol

− (b) 50 kJ 1mol

− (c) –50kJ 1mol

− (d) 60kJ 1mol

−

33 Quest Tutorials


Quest

18. BA → , T/200015A e10k −

=

,DC →T/100014

C e10k −=

Temperature T/K at which )kk( CA = is:

(a) 1000K (b) 2000K (c) K303.2

2000(d) K

303.2

1000

19. In presence of catalyst aE is lowered by 2 kcal at 27°C. Hence rate will be increased by

(a) 20 times (b) 14 times (c) 28 times (d) 2 times

20.

(A) →

∆ Cu2ClN 2NCl +

Half-life is independent of concentration of A. After 10 minutes volume 2N gas is 10L and

after complete reaction 50L. Hence rate constant is:

(a)1min5log

10

303.2 −(b)

1min25.1log10

303.2 −

(c)1min2log

10

303.2 −(d)

1min4log10

303.2 −

21. In which of the following case, aE of the backward reaction is greater than that of the forward

reaction ?

(a) kcal50E,Bkcal10A a =→+ (b) kcal40E,Bkcal20A a =→+

(c) kcal10E,Bkcal40A a =→+ (d) kcal20E,Bkcal40A a =→−

22. The reaction )g(D)g(C)g(B2)g(A +→+

Initial pressure of A and B are respectively ,atm60.0pA = .atm80.0pB = When ,atm20.0pC =

the rate of the reaction, relative to the initial rate, is:

(a)48

1(b)

24

1(c)

6

1(d)

4

1

23. For a reaction for which the activation energies of the forward and reverse directions are equal

in value:

(a) the stoichiometry is the mechanism (b) 0H =∆

(c) 0S =∆ (d) the order is zero

24. For hypothetical reaction BA → takes place according to

A1k

C , A + C D2k→ (slow) Rate law will be

(a) 2K (A)(C) (b) 21KK (A) (c) 221 )A(KK (d) )C)(A(KK 21

Quest Tutorials 34


Quest

ANSWERS

1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (d)

7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (b)

13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (d)

19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (c)

25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (c)

25. For a reaction 2A + 3 B C2→ , initial concentration of A & B are 40 moles/lit. each. When

concentration of C becomes 2 moles/lit, the rate of reaction, relative to the initial rate is

(a) 1/4 (b) 24/1 (c) 34/1 (d) 44/1

26. For 223 OSO2SO2 +→ energy of activation is ,E1 then what is the value of aE for the

reaction 223 O2

1SOSO +→ will be

(a)2

E1(b) 1E2 (c) 1E (d) none of these

27. A drop of solution (volume 0.05ml) contains 6103 −× mole .H+ If the rate constant of disap-

pearance of +H is 710 mol/lit/sec. How long would it take for +H in drop to disappear

(a) .sec106 8−× (b) .sec106 9−

× (c) .sec106 10−× (d) .sec106 12−

×

28. The chemical reaction 23 O3O2 → proceeds

3O OO2 + (fast), 23 O2OO →+ (slow). The rate law expression will be

(a) rate = K[O][ 3O ] (b) rate = k 23]O[

(c) rate = K 23]O[ 1

2 ]O[ − (d) can’t be determined

29. A zero order reaction .BA → At the end of 1 hr. A is 75% reacted. How much of it will be

left unreacted at the end of 2 hrs.

(a) 12.5% (b) 6.25% (c) 3.12% (d) 0%

30. ZW,e10K YX T50010→=→

− ,e10K T100012 −= at what T both the K are same

(a) 500K (b) 1500K (c) K500

606.4(d) K

5000

303.2

35 Quest Tutorials


Quest

IONIC EQUILIBRIA

1. The degree of ionisation of an electrolyte does not depend on

(a) the temperature (b) the nature of the solute and solvent

(c) size of the solvent molecules (d) concentration of the solution

2. When 0.1N solution of an acid at room temperature has a degree of ionisation of 10%, the

concentration of hydroxyl ions in g ion per litre would be

(a) 1110− (b) 1210− (c) 910− (d) 510−

3. Given a 0.01M solution of each of the following, which solution will contain the largest con-

centration of +OH3 ion

(a) HCl (b) 3NH (c) ClNH4 (d) 3NaHCO

4. A pair of compounds which can not exist together in solution is

(a) 32CONa and 3NaHCO (b) 3NaHCO and NaCl

(c) 3NaHCO and NaOH (d) 32CONa and NaOH

5. If aK of a weak acid HA is 510− , the bpK of the conjugate base −A is

(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 9

6. ,XH2 a dibasic acid, completely dissociate in water . Which one of the following molar

solution of XH2 acid has pH value of 1 ?

(a) 0.05 (b) 0.1 (c) 0.2 (d) 1.0

7. Pure water has +OH3 ion concentration of 610− mole 1L− at 90°C. The value of wK at

90°C is

(a) 1210− (b) 1410− (c) 610− (d) 810−

8. The ionic product of water will increase if

(a) +H ions are added (b) −OH ions are added

(c) pressure is decreased (d) temperature is increased

9. Assuming 2214w Lmol101K −−

×= when 0.0005 mole of strong electrolyte 2)OH(Ca is dis-

solved to form 100 ml of a saturated solution, the pH will be

(a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 9.8 (d) 3.3

10. The dissociation constant of a weak acid and a weak base constituting the salt are equal. The

pH of this solution is

(a) 7 (b) <7 (c) >7 (d) 0

Quest Tutorials 36


Quest

11. The apK values of barbituric acid, benzoic acid, boric acid and carbonic acid are 3.98, 4.20, 9.24,

6.37 respectively. The strongest acid is

(a) Boric acid (b) Barbituric acid (c) Carbonic acid (d) Benzoic acid

12. Addition of solid KCN to water would cause

(a) increase in pH (b) decrease in pH (c) pH remains same (d) none of these

13. The compound whose 0.1M solution is basic is

(a) COONaCH3 (b) 43COONHCH (c) ClNH4 (d) 424 SO)NH(

14. The pH of a solution containing 10ml of 0.1N NaOH and 10ml of 0.05N 42SOH is

(a) 7 (b) >7 (c) <7 (d) 0

15. The pH of a solution formed by mixing 40ml of 0.10 M HCl and 10M of 0.45 M NaOH is

(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 6 (d) 8

16. The +H ion concentration of acetic acid is decreased by the addition of

(a) 3AgNO (b) ClNH4 (c) NaCN (d) 342 )SO(Al

17. If pH value of 0.1 mole 1

L−

HCl is nearly 1, then pH value of 0.05 mole 1L−

42SOH is

(a) 0.5 (b) 1 (c) 0.05 (d) 2

18. If NaOH is added to a solution of COOHCH3 then

(a) pH of the solution decreases (b)+H ion concentration increases

(c) −]COOCH[ 3 conc. increases (d) ]COOHCH[ 3 conc. increases

19. A buffer solution of sodium acetate and acetic acid is diluted with water. Its pH will

(a) increase (b) decrease (c) remains same (d) becomes

20. pH of which of the following buffer will slightly alter on addition of small amount of strong

base ?

(a) COONaCHCOOHCH 33 + (b) ClNHOHNH 44 +

(c) Boric acid + Borax (d) None

21. A certain buffer solution contains equal concentration of −X and HX. The bK for −X is

10101

−× . The pH of the buffer is

(a) 4 (b) 7 (c) 10 (d) 14

22. In a solution of COOHCH3 and COONaCH3 the ratio of salt to acid concentration is in-

creased by 10 times, pH of the solution will increase by

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 10

23. In which of the following solvents will AgBr have the highest solubility ?

(a) 310

− M NaBr (b) 310− OHMNH4 (c) 310− M HBr (d) Pure water

37 Quest Tutorials


Quest

24. The solubility of AgCl in 0.10M NaCl solution is )10 1.20 AgClfor K(-10

sp ×=

(a) 0.1 M (b) 6102.1 −× (c) 9102.1 −

× (d) 10102.1 −×

25. Let the solubility of AgCl in water, in 0.02 M ,CaCl2 in 0.01 M NaCl, 0.05 M 3AgNO be

4321 s,s,s,s respectively. Which relationship between following quantities is correct ?

(a) 4231 ssss >>> (b) 4321 ssss >=>

(c) 1324 ssss >>> (d) 1234 ssss >>>

26. When equal volumes of the following solutions are mixed, precipitation of AgCl

)108.1K( 10sp

−×= will occur only when

(a) )Cl(M10and)Ag(M10 44 −−+− (b) )Cl(M10and)Ag(M10 55 −−+−

(c) )Cl(M10and)Ag(M10 66 −−+− (d) )Cl(M10and)Ag(M10 610 −−+−

27. 10ml of a strong acid solution of pH = 2 are mixed with 990 ml of a buffer solution of pH = 4.

The pH of the resulting solution will be

(a) 4.002 (b) 4.000 (c) 4.200 (d) 3.800

28. Solid 42SOK is added to 100ml of 0.1M 3AgNO solution. What will be the concentration of

42SOK so that precipitation starts ? ]M104.6SOAg for K[ 542sp

−×=

(a) 0.1M (b) M104.6 7−×

(c) M104.6 3−×

(d) M104.6 5−×

29. A solution having 0.01 M +2Zn and 0.01M +2Cu is saturated by passing SH2 gas. The −2S

ion concentration is .M101.8 21−× spK for ZnS and CuS are 22103 −

× and 36108 −× . Which

of the following will occur in solution ?

(a) CuS will precipitate (b) ZnS will precipitate

(c) both CuS and Zns will precipitate

(d) Both +2Cu and +2Zn ions will remain in the solution

30. Buffer action of a mixture of OOHCH3 and COONaCH3 is maximum when the ratio of salt

to acid is equal to

(a) 1.0 (b) 100.0 (c) 10.0 (d) 0.1

31. The addition of COONaCH3 crystal to one litre of 0.1M acetic acid will produce

(a) increase in the value of aK (b) decrease in the value of aK

(c) increase in the pH value (d) increase in sodium ion concentration

32. If each of the following substances were made up in 0.1N solutions, which solution have a pH

with the smallest numerical value

(a) 32CONa (b) 33BOH (c) NaOH (d) 742 OBNa

Quest Tutorials 38


Quest

33. What is the pH of a solution made by mixing 20ml of 0.3 M HCl and 50ml of 0.1 M NaOH and

diluting to a final volume of one litre ?

(a) 3.0 (b) 2.2 (c) 2.6 (d) 3.8

34. Which one of the following doesn’t undergo hydrolysis

(a) 2SnCl (b) 4SnCl (c) 2FeCl (d) 2CaCl

35. No. of −OH in 1 ml solution of pH = 13 is

(a) 13101 −× (b) 7106 × (c) 13106× (d) 19

106×

36. The degree of dissociation of 0.05 M 3NH solution at 25°C and pH = 11 is

(a) 2103 −× (b) 2102 −

× (c) 2104 −×

(d) 2103.0 −×

37. A precipitate of )107.1K(CaF 10sp2

−×= will be obtained when equal volume of the follow-

ing are mixed

(a)24

MCa10+−

and −− F M10 4 (b)22

MCa10+−

and −−F M10

3

(c) 25MCa10

+− and−−

F M103

(d)23

MCa10+−

and −−

F M105

38. Value of wpK

(a) increases with increase of temperature (b) decreases with increase of temperature

(c) remains constant with temperature (d) can’t be predicted

39. The pH value of the aqueous solution of the following is maximum

(a) 4CuSO (b) COONaCH3 (c) 324 CO)NH( (d) NaCl

40. What is the effect of addition of KCl on solubility of 3AgNO solution ?

(a) its solubility decreases (b) its solubility increases

(c) its solubility remains unchanged

(d) its solubility at first increases then it decreases

41. Solubility of AgCN will be minimum in

(a) pure water (b) acidic buffer

(c) basic buffer (d) it will remain same for all the cases

42. The pH of the solution produced when an aqueous solution of strong acid of pH = 5 is mixed

with equal volume of an aqueous solution of strong acid of pH = 3 is

(a) 3.3 (b) 3.5 (c) 4.5 (d) 4.0

43. Solution of acid having .M10]H[ 10−+= The pOH of this solution will be

(a) between 7 and 8 (b) 10 (c) 4 (d) between 6 and 7

44. 1 Meq of 2)OH(Ca is present in 100ml solution. pH of the solution will be

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 12

39 Quest Tutorials


Quest

45. How much water must be added to 300ml of 0.2 M solution of COOHCH3 for the degree of

dissociation of the acid to double )108.1K( 5a

−×=

(a) 600ml (b) 300ml (c) 900 ml (d) 1200ml

46. spK of 4CaSO is 12104 −×

. 4CaSO is precipitated on mixing equal volumes of the follow-

ing solutions.

(a)2

6 MCaCl103 −× and

446 SO)NH(M103 −

×

(b)2


4246 SO)NH(M103 −

×

(c)2


4246 SO)NH(M103 −

×

(d) in all cases

47. What will be the +H ion concentration in a solution prepared by mixing 50ml of 0.20M NaCl.

25ml of 0.10M NaOH and 25ml of 0.30 M HCl ?

(a) 0.5M (b) 0.05 M (c) 0.02 M (d) 0.10M

48. The buffer capacity of a solution containing weak acid and its salt is maximum when (acid is

monobasic).

(a) [Salt] = [acid] (b) [salt] > [acid]

(c) [salt] < [acid] (d) [salt] + [acid] is minimum

49. What is the pH value of 0.01(M) NaHS solution. 21 K&K of SH2 are 710− & 13103.1 −×

respectively.

(a) 6.587 (b) 7.824 (c) 8.016 (d) 9.943

50. Which has lower value pKa

(a) COMe2 (b) 2MeCONH (c) CO)NH( 22 (d) CNH)NH( 2

51. Amongst the following anions the strongest Bronsted base is

(a) −Cl (b) −COOCH3 (c) −

4ClO (d) −

4HSO

52. The solubility of lead iodide in water will be given as

(a) spkS = (b)4

kS

sp= (c)

21sp

4

kS

= (d)

31sp

4

kS

=

53. wK value of pure water at 60°C is 62.910 14×

− . The solution for which pH = 6.7 is

(a) basic (b) acidic (c) neutral (d) amphoteric

54. The dissociation of water at 25°C is 7109.1 −

× percent and the density of water is 3cm/g0.1 ,

the ionization constant of water (approximately) is

(a) 61042.3 −×

(b) 81042.3

−×

(c) 141000.1 −×

(d) 161000.2 −×

Quest Tutorials 40


Quest

55. Which of the following will not function as a buffer ?

(a) NaCl + NaOH (b) 33742 BOHOBNa +

(c) 442 NaHPOPONaH + (d) OHNHClNH 44 +

56. A certain ion −B has an Arrhenius constant for basic character (equilibrium constant

).108.2 7−× The equilibrium constant for Lowry-Bronsted basic character is

(a) 7108.2 −× (b) 81057.3 −

× (c) 81057.3 × (d) 7108.2 ×

57. The weakest base among the following is

(a) −H (b) −

3CH (c) −OCH3

(d) −Cl

58. The solubility of −+ClNHHC 356 would be highest, among the following solvents in

(a) acidic buffer of pH=3 (b) basic buffer of pH = 10

(c) neutral buffer of pH = 7 (d) pure water

59. If ClNH4 is added to a dilute solution of ,OHNH4 the pH of the solution will

(a) increase (b) decrease (c) be unaffected

(d) first increase and then decrease

60. The pH of blood is maintained by the balance between 32COH and 3NaHCO . If the amount

of 2CO in the blood is increased, how will it affect the pH of blood ?

(a) pH will increase (b) pH will decrease

(c) pH will be 7 (d) pH will remain same

61. A certain buffer contains equal concentration of −X and HX. The bK for −

X is 910

− . the

pH of the buffer is

(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 9

62. Which 0.2 mole of HCl is added to 1 litre of a buffer solution containing 0.1 mole each of

COOHCH3 and COONaCH3 the pH of the solution is )108.1COOHCH of K( 53a

−×=

(a) 4.7447 (b) 2.72

(c) 1 (d) cannot be predicted

63. 500ml of 0.2 M BOH (a weak base) is mixed with 500 ml of 0.1 M HCl. pH of the resulting

buffer solution is 9. What is the pH of a 0.1 M BCl solution ?

(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 9

64. Which of the following acts as a Bronsted acid as well as Bronsted base

(a) 32CONa (b) −OH (c) 3NH (d) −

3HCO

65. The pH of 0.1M solution of the following salts increases in the order

(a) HClNaCNClNHNaCl 4 <<< (b) NaCNNaClClNHHCl 4 <<<

(c) HClNaClClNHNaCN 4 <<< (d) ClNHNaCNNaClHCl 4<<<

41 Quest Tutorials

H e a d O f f i c e : E-16/289, Sector-8, Rohini, New Delhi. Ph. 65395439

Quest

Answers

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (a)

7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (a)

13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (c)

19. (c) 20. (d) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (c)

25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (a)

31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (b)

37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (b) 41. (c) 42. (a)

43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (a)

49. (d) 50. (a) 51. (b) 52. (d) 53. (a) 54. (d)

55. (a) 56. (d) 57. (d) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (d)

61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (b)

Quest Tutorials 42


Quest

RADIOACTIVITY

1. Correct order of kinetic energy of ,,βα and γ rays is

(a) γ>β>α (b) α>β>γ (c) β≅α>γ (d) β>γ>α

2. How many α and β particle are emitted when 23290Th undergoes disintegration to form

20882Th

(a) βα 6,4 (b) βα 4,6 (c) βα 6,6 (d) βα 4,4

3. How many α and β particles should be eliminated from a radio active nuclide so that an

isobar is formed

(a) βα 1 ,1 (b) βα 2 ,1 (c) βα 2 ,2 (d) βn

4. If No is the number of nuclei at t = 0, no. of nuclei remaining undecayed at the end of thn half

life is

(a) Non2− (b) Non

2 (c) No2n (d) No2

n−

5. Last stable element formed when a radio active nuclide 241X disintegrate is

(a) 206Pb (b) 207Pb (c) 208Pb (d) 209Bi

6. Cyclotron and synchotron are used as particle accelerator. Which particle can’t be accelerated

by them

(a) positron (b) proton (c) α -particle (d) neutron

7. Which of the following is used as control rods in nuclear reactor

(a) cadmium rods (b) graphite rods (c) steel rods (d) all of these

8. In a chain reaction ,CBA →→ the equilibrium is reached when

(a) rate of disintegration of A = rate of formation of B

(b) rate of disintegration of B = rate of formation of C

(c) rate of disintegration of B = rate of formation of B

(d) rate of formation of C = rate of disintegration of A

9. In a radio active decay, the electron comes from

(a) the atomic nucleus (b) the orbit having principal quantum no. = 1

(c) the extra orbit of the atom (d) the ultimate orbit of the atom

10. →→+ 23692

10

23592 UnU Products + J102.3n 111

0−×+ . The energy released when 1 gm of

23592 U finally undergoes fission is

(a) kJ1075.128× (b) kJ104.16

7× (c) kJ102.87× (d) kJ105.6

6×

43 Quest Tutorials


Quest

11. No. of −β particle emitted during the change dc

ba XX → is

(a)4

da −(b) b

2

dac +

−+ (c) b

2

dbc −

−+ (d) b

2

dac −

−+

12. For two atoms 22

11

AZ

AZ X&X & ,Z2AZ2A,AA 221121 −=−≠ the species would be called

(a) isotonic (b) isodiphers (c) isosters (d) none

13. For the following reaction 11

00

11

01

11

11 H2CB2;XBHA,eAHH +→+→++→+ .

Identify A, B & C.

(a) 10

42

21 n,He,H (b) 4

23

22

2 He,He,He (c) 42

32

21 He,He,H (d) 4

24

22

1 He,He,H

14. Correct order of radioactivity is

(a) 31

21

11 HHH >> (b) 1

12

13

1 HHH >> (c) 21

11

31 HHH >> (d) 2

11

13

1 HHH =>

15. At radioactive equilibrium the ratio between two atoms of radio active elements A & B are

.1:1039× If t

21

of A is 1010 years what is t

21

of B.

(a) 30 yrs (b) 0.3 yrs (c) 3.3 yrs (d) none

16. In the sequence of following nuclear reactions

21884

n23892 MLZYX →→→→

α−β−β−α− the value of n is

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6

17. Co-60 has t21

= 5.3 yrs, the time taken for 7/8 of the original sample to disintegrate will be

(a) 4.6 yrs (b) 9.2 yrs (c) 10.6 yrs (d) 15.9 yrs

18. A radioactive element X decays by the sequence, and with half lives, given below

ZYXdays30

2

min30→→βα

Which of the following is correct

(a) after 2 hours, less than 10% of the initial X is left behind.

(b) after 60 days, more than 30% of y is left behind.

(c) Atomic number of X and Z are not same (d) the mass no. of Y is greater than X

19. If one starts with 1 curie(Ci) of radioactive substance( )hrs15t 21 = the activity left after a

period of two weeks will be about

(a) 1.82 Ciµ (b) 0.182 Ciµ (c) 182 milli Ci (d) 1.82 milli Ci

20. A sample of rock form moon contains equal number of atoms of uranium and lead

).years104.5 Ufor t( 921 ×= The age of the rock would be

(a) years104.5 9× (b) years109 9× (c) years105.31 9× (d) years1025.2 9×

Quest Tutorials 44


Quest

21. In the chain reaction

E Energyn3KrBaU 10

23892 +++→

Neutrons and energy produced at the thn step will be

(a) 3n, n (b) n,3n (c) 1nn 3,3 − (d) none of these

22. Amz

(half life 10 days) → B8m4z

−−

Starting with one mol of A in a closed vessel at N.T.P., helium gas collected after 20 days is:

(a) 11.2L (b) 22.4 L (c) 33.6L (d) 44.8 L

23. A radioactive element, X, decays by the sequence and with half lives, given below:

X [half life = 30 min] α+→ Y1k

Y [half life = 2 days] β+→ 2Z2k

which of the following statements is correct ?

(a) disintegration constant 12 kk > (b) atomic number of X and Z are same

(c) the mass number of Y is greater than X (d) Y and Z are isotopes

24. Assuming that only particles emitted from atoms during natural radioactive decay are α and

β particles, which of the following atoms could not possibly result from the natural decay of

U23592 atoms ?

(a) Ac23189 (b) Ac227

89 (c) Ac22589 (d) Pb207

82

25. Half-life period of the radioactive element A is 10 days. Amount of A left on 11th day starting

with 1 mol A is

(a)

2

1(b)

1112

2

1

(c)

111

2

1

(d)

1011

2

1

26. A piece of hair shows the C14 activity falling by 75% of the initial activity.. C14 has half-life of

5760 years. Age of hair is:

(a) 5760 years (b) 11520 years (c) 2880 years (d) none

27. Tritium, H31

has a half-life of 12.26 years. A 5.00mL sample of tritiated water has an activity

of .cpm1040.2 9× How many years will it take for the activity to fall to .dpm1000.3 8× ?

(a) 6.13 (b) 12.26 (c) 24.52 (d) 36.78

28. Successive emission of an α -particle and two β -particles by an atom of a radioactive element

results in the formation of its:

(a) isobar (b) isomer (c) isotone (d) isotope

45 Quest Tutorials


Quest

29. The decay constant of Ra226 is .sec1037.1 111 −−× A sample of Ra226 having an activity of 1.5

millicurie will contain ..... atoms.

(a) 181005.4 × (b) 17107.3 × (c) 151005.2 × (d) 10107.4 ×

30. Radium has atomic mass 226 and half life of 1600 years. The number of disintegrations per

second per gram are:

(a) 10108.4 × (b) 8107.3 × (c) 6102.9 × (d) 10107.3 ×

31. If 4

3 quantity of radioactive substance disintegrates in 2 hours, its half life period will be:

(a) 15 minutes (b) 30 minutes (c) 60 minutes (d) 90 minutes

32. A freshly prepared radioactive source of half life period 2 hours emits radiations of intensity

which is 64 times the permissible safe level. The minimum time after which it would be

possible to work with this source is

(a) 6 hours (b) 12 hours (c) 24 hours (d) 48 hours

33. A radio isotope has a half life 10 days. If today there is 125g of it left, what was it mass 40 days

earlier?

(a) 600 g (b) 1000g (c) 1250g (d) 2000g

34. Nuclear reaction accompanies with emission of neutron(s) is:

(a) PHeAl 3015

42

2713 →+ (b) NHC 13

711

126 →+

(c) eSiP 01

3014

3015 +→ (d) eBkHeAm 0

124497

42

24096 +→+

35. If the energy released by burning 1g of carbon is 11103× ergs, then the amount of energy

released by converting 1g of carbon completely to nuclear energy would be equivalent to en-

ergy produced by burning .... g of carbon:

(a) 610 (b) 810 (c) 20109× (d) 10103×

ANSWERS

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (d)

7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (b)

13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (a)

19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (c)

25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (d)

31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (d)

Quest Tutorials 46


Quest

SOLUTIONS

1. The expression relating molarity (M) and molality (m) of a solution is

a)2MM

Mm

+ρ= b)

2MM

Mm

−ρ= c)

M

MMm 2+ρ

= d)2

2

M

MMm

−ρ=

where ρ is the density of solution and 2M is the molar mass of solute.

2. The expression relating molality (m) and mole fraction of solute )( 2x in a solution is

a)1

12

1 mM

mMx

+= b)

1

12

1 Mm

Mmx

−= c)

1

12

1

Mm

Mmx

+= d)

1

12

1

Mm

Mmx

−=

where 1M is the molar mass of solvent.

3. The expression relating mole fraction of solute )( 2x and molarity (M) of the solution is

a)ρ+−

=)( 21

12

MMM

MMx b)

ρ−−=

)( 21

12

MMM

MMx

c)1

212

)(

MM

MMMx

ρ+−= d)

1

212

)(

MM

MMMx

ρ−−=

where ρ is the density of solution and 1M and 2M are the molar masses of solvent and solute,

respectively

4. For a binary ideal liquid solution, the total pressure of the solution is given as

a)BBAAtotal xpppP )(

***−+= b)

ABABtotal xpppP )(***

−+=

c)AABAtotal xpppP )(

***−+= d)

BABBtotal xpppP )(***

−+=

5. Which of the following plots does not represent the behaviour of an ideal binary liquid solution ?

a) Plot of Ap versus Ax (mole fraction of A in liquid phase) is linear

b) Plot of Bp versus Bx is linear c) Plot of totalP versus Bx is linear

d) Plot of totalp versus Ax is nonlinear

6. Which of the following plots represents the behaviour of an ideal binary liquid solution ?

a) Plot of totalp versus Ay (mole fraction of AZ in vapour phase) is linear

b) Plot of totalp versus By is linear c) Plot of totalp/1 versus Ay is linear

d) Plot of totalp/1 versus By is nonlinear

7. Which of the following plots correctly represents the behaviour of an ideal binary liquid solution ?

a) Plot of Ax (mole fraction of A in liquid phase) versus Ay (mole fraction of A in vapour phase) is

linear

b) Plot of Ax versus By is linear c) Plot Ax/1 versus Ay/1 is linear

d) Plot of Ax/1 versus By/1 linear

8. The plot of Ax/1 versus Ay/1 (where Ax and Ay are the mole fractions of A in liquid and vapour

phases, respectively) is linear with slope and intercept respectively given as

a) *****/)(,/ BBABA ppppp − b) *****

/)(,/ BABBA ppppp −

47 Quest Tutorials


Quest

c) *****/)(,/ BBAAB ppppp − d) *****

/)(,/ BABAB ppppp −

9. For an ideal binary liquid solution with **BA pp > , which of the following relations between Ax (mole

fraction of A in liquid phase) and Ay (mole fraction of A in vapour phase) is correctly represented ?

a) AA yx = b) AA yx >

c) AA yx <

d) Ax and Ay cannot be correlated with each other

10. For a dilute solution containing a nonvolatile solute, which of the following expressions correctly repre-sents the molar mass of solute ?

a))/( 11

22

Mm

mM = b)

)/()/(*1111

22

ppMm

mM

∆−=

c))/()/(

*1111

22

ppmM

mM

∆−= d) )/(

*11

1

122 pp

m

MmM ∆−

=

11. For a dilute solution containing a nonvolatile solute, the molar mass of solute evaluated from the eleva-tion of boiling point is given by the expression

a)

2

12

m

m

K

TM

b

b∆= b)

1

22

m

m

K

TM

b

b∆= c)

1

22

m

m

T

KM

b

b

∆= d)

2

12

m

m

T

KM

b

b

∆=

12. A binary liquid solution of n-heptane and ethyl alcohol is prepared. Which of the following statementscorrectly represents the behaviour of this liquid solution ?a) The solution formed is an ideal solutionb) The solution formed is nonideal solution with positive deviations from Raoult’s lawc) The solution formed is nonideal solution with negative deviations from Raoult’s lawd) n-Heptane exhibits positive deviation whereas ethyl alcohol exhibits negative deviation from Raoult’slaw

13. Which of the following colligative properties can provide molar mass of proteins (or polymers or col-loids) with greater precision?a) Relative lowering of vapour pressure b) Elevation of boiling pointc) Depression in freezing point d) Osmotic pressure

14. A solution contains 0.1 mol of acetamide in 1 L of glacial acetic acid. When the solution is cooled, thefirst crystals that appeared at the freezing point contain the molecules ofa) acetamide only b) acetic acid onlyc) both acetamide and acetic acidd) either acetamide or acetic acid depending upon the conditions of the experiment.

15. The degree of dissociation )(α of a weak electrolyte yxBA is related to vant’s Hoff factor (i) by the

expression

a))1(

1

−+

−=α

yx

ib)

1

1

++

−=α

yx

ic)

1

1

−

−+=α

i

yxd)

1

1

−

++=α

i

yx

16. The vapour pressure of a pure liquid A is 40 mm of Hg at 310 K. The vapour pressure of this liquid in asolution with liquid B is 32 mm of Hg. Mole fraction of A in the solution, if it obeys Raoult’s law, isa) 0.8 b) 0.5 c) 0.2 d) 0.4

17. The vapour pressure of a pure liquid A is 0.80 atm. When a non-volatile substance B is added to thesolvent, its vapour pressure drops to 0.60 atm. Mole fraction of the component B in the solution isa) 0.50 b) 0.25 c) 0.75 d) 0.40

Quest Tutorials 48


Quest

18. Mole fraction of toluene in the vapour phase which is in equilibrium with a solution of benzene )120( torrp =°

and toluene )80( torrp =° having 2.0 mole of each, is

a) 0.50 b) 0.25 c) 0.60 d) 0.40

19. Total vapour pressure of mixture of 1 mol A )150( torrpA =° and 2 mol B )240( torrpB =° is 200 mm.

In this casea) there is positive deviation from Raoult’s lawb) there is negative deviation from Raoult’s lawc) there is no deviation from Raoult’s lawd) molecular masses of A and B are also required

20. The vapour pressure of pure benzene, 66HC at 50°C is 268 torr. How many mol of non-volatile solute

per mol of benzene is required to prepare a solution of benzene having a vapour pressure of 167 torr at50°C ?a) 0.377 b) 0.605 c) 0.623 d) 0.395

21. 1 mol each of following solutes are taken in 5 mol water

A) NaCl B) 42SOK C) 43PONa D) glucose

Assuming 100% ionisation of the electrolyte, relative decrease in V.P will be in order

a) DCBA <<< b) ABCD <<< c) CBAD <<< d) Equal

22. OHPtCl 24 6. can exist as a hydrated complex; 1 molal aq. solution has depression in freezing point of

3.72°. Assume 100% ionisation and kgmolOHK f1

2 86.1)(−

°= , then complex is

a) 462 ])([ ClOHPt b) OHClClOHPt 22442 2.])([

c) OHClClOHPt 2332 3.])([ d) OHClOHPt 2422 4.])([

23. An azeotropic solution of two liquids has a boiling point lower than either of them when ita) shows negative deviation from Raoult’s lawb) shows positive deviation from Raoult’s lawc) show ideal behavior d) is saturated

24. Depression of freezing point of 0.01 molal aq. COOHCH3 solution is 0.02046°. 1 molal urea solution

freezes at -1.86°. Assuming molality equal to molarity, pH of COOHCH3 solution is

a) 2 b) 3 c) 3.2 d) 4.2

25. pH of a 0.1 M monobasic acid is found to be 2. Hence its osmotic pressure at a given temp. T K isa) 0.1 RT b) 0.11 RT c) 1.1 RT d) 0.01 RT

26. 2.56 gm of sulphur in 100 gm of 2CS has depression in F.P of 0.010°, 1

)(1.0−

°= molalK f . Hence

atomicity of sulphur in 2CS is

a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8

27. One chemist found van’t Hoff factor of COOHCH3 to be less than unity. He concluded that in his

experiment, the acetic acida) dissociates b) associatesc) either dissociates or associatesd) always dissociates, hence his experiment is useless

28. Which of the following azeotropic solutions has the B.P less than B.P of the constituent A and B ?

a) 333 COCHCHandCHCl b) 332 COCHCHandCS

c) 323 ClCHandOHCHHC d) 23 CSandCHOCH

49 Quest Tutorials


Quest

29. Which is true about ideal solutions ?a) the volume of mixing is zero b) the enthalpy of mixing is zeroc) (a) and (b) d) none of these

30. 12.2 gm of benzoic acid (M = 122 ) in 100 gm benzene has depression in freezing point 2.6°;

molkgK f /2.5 °= . If there is 100% polymerisation, no. of molecules of benzoic acid in associated

state isa) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

31. Based on the given diagram, which of the following statements regarding the solutions of two misciblevolatile liquids are correct ?

AX

BX

A

CH

G

FE B

D

10

01

1. Plots AD and BC show that Raoult’s law is obeyed for the solution in which B is a solvent and A is thesolute and as well as for that in which A is solvent and B is solute.2. Plot CD shows that Dalton’s law of partial pressures is observed by the binary solutions of compo-nents A and B.3) EF + EG = EH; and AC and BD correspond to the vapour pressures of the pure solvents A and Brespectively.Select the correct answer using the codes given belowa) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) 1 ,2 and 3

32. A maxima or minima obtained in the temperature composition curve of a mixture of two liquids, indi-catesa) an azeotropic mixture b) an eutectic formationc) that the liquids are immiscible with one anotherd) that the liquids are partially miscible at the maximum or minimum

33. Which of the following solution pairs can be separated by fractional distillation?

a) Water- 3HNO b) Water-HCl

c) Benzene-toluene d) OHHC 52 - water

34. When two liquids A and B are mixed, their boiling points become greater than both of them. The mixtureisa) ideal solutionb) non-ideal solution with negative deviation from Raoult’s lawc) non-ideal solution with positive deviation from Raoult’s lawd) normal solution

35. The azeotropic mixture of water (b.pt. 100°C) and HCl (b.pt. 85°C) boils at 108.5°C. When this mixtureis distilled, it is possible to obtaina) pure HCl b) pure water

c) pure water as well as HCl d) neither HCl nor OH2 in their pure states

36. 22OH solution is used for hair bleaching and is sold as a solution of approximately 5.0g 22OH per

100mL of the solution. The molecular mass of 22OH is 34. The molarity of this solution is approxi-

matelya) 0.15M b) 1.5 M c) 3.0 M d) 3.4 M

Quest Tutorials 50


Quest

37. A solution of 2CaCl is 0.5 mol/litre, then the moles of chloride ion in 500mL will be

a) 0.5 b) 0.25 c) 1.0 d) 0.75

38. How many grams of 42SOH are present in 0.25g mole of 42SOH ?

a) 2.45 b) 24.5 c) 0.25 d) 0.245

39. The vapour pressure of a solution having solid as solute and liquid as solvent isa ) d i r e c t l y p r o p o r t i o n a l t o m o l e f r a c t i o n o f t h e s o l v e n t

b ) i n v e r s e l y p r o p o r t i o n a l t o m o l e f r a c t i o n o f t h e s o l v e n t

c ) d i r e c t l y p r o p o r t i o n a l t o m o l e f r a c t i o n o f t h e s o l u t e

d ) i n v e r s e l y p r o p o r t i o n a l t o m o l e f r a c t i o n o f t h e s o l u t e

4 0 . I f 0p and p are the vapour pressures of a solvent and its solution respectively and 1N and 2N are the

mole fractions of the solvent and solute respectively, then correct relation is

a) 20Npp = b) 10Npp =

c) 10 pNp = d) ( )210 / NNpp =

41. The vapour pressure of ethyl alcohol and methyl alcohol are 45mm and 90mm. An ideal solution is

formed at the same temperature by mixing 60g of OHHC 52 with 40g of OHCH3 . Total vapour

pressure of the solution is approximatelya) 70mm b) 35mm c) 105mm d) 140mm

42. The vapour pressure of a dilute aqueous solution of glucose is 750mm of mercury at 373K. The molefraction of solute is

a)10

1b)

6.7

1c)

35

1d)

76

1

43. The vapour pressure of a pure liquid ‘A’ is 70 torr at 27°C. It forms an ideal solution with another liquidB. The mole fraction of B is 0.2 and total pressure of the solution is 84 torr at 27°C. The vapour pressureof pure liquid B at 27°C isa) 14 b) 56 c) 140 d) 70

44. The vapour pressure of water at room temperature is 23.8mm Hg. The vapour pressure of an aqueoussolution of sucrose with mole fraction 0.1 is equal toa) 23.9mm Hg b) 24.2mm Hg c) 21.42mm Hg d) 31.44mm Hg

45. The osmotic pressure of a 5% solution of cane sugar (molecular mass 342) at 15°C isa) 3.46mm b) 3.46atm c) 4.0atm d) 2.45atm

46. A solution has an osmotic pressure of 0.821 atm at 300K. Its concentration would bea) 0.66M b) 0.32M c) 0.066M d) 0.033M

47. If 3g of glucose (molecular mass 180) is dissolved in 60g of water at 15°C, then the osmotic pressure ofthis solution will bea) 0.34atm b) 0.65atm c) 6.57atm d) 5.57atm

48. An electrolyte A give 3 ions and B is a non-electrolyte. If 0.1M solution of B produces an osmoticpressure P, then 0.05 M solution of A will produce an osmotic pressure (assuming that the electrolyte iscompletely ionised) ofa) 1.5P b) P c) 0.5P d) 0.75P

49. If 0.1M solution of glucose and 0.1M urea solution are placed on two sides of a semipermeable mem-brane to equal heights, then it will be correct to say thata) there will be no net movement across the membraneb) glucose will flow towards urea solutionc) urea will flow towards glucose solutiond) water will flow from urea solution towards glucose solution

51 Quest Tutorials


Quest

50 A solution of urea contains 8.6g per litre. This solution is isotonic with a 5% solution of a non-volatilesolute. The molecular mass of the solute will bea) 349 b) 34.9 c) 3490 d) 861

51. The hard shell of an egg was dissolved in HCl. The egg was then placed in a concentrated solution ofNaCl. What will happen?a) the egg will shrink b) the egg will swellc) the egg will become harder d) there will be hardly any visible change

52. The freezing point of 1% aqueous solution of ( )23NOCa is

a) less than 0°C b) 0°Cc) higher than 0°C d) cannot be predicted

53. A solution of 1.25g of non-electrolyte in 20g of water freezes at 271.94K. If fK is 1.86K kg mol-1, then

molecular mass of the solute will bea) 207.8 b) 179.79 c) 209.6 d) 109.5

54. The ratio of the value of colligative property of KCl solution to that of sugar solution at the same concen-tration is nearlya) 1 b) 2 c) 0.5 d) 2.5

55. The freezing point order of the solution of glucose is

a) %1%2%3%10 >>> b) %10%3%2%1 >>>

c) %2%10%3%1 >>> d) %2%3%1%10 >>>

56. Which of the following solutions will have highest boiling point?a) 1% glucose in water b) 1% sucrose in waterc) 1% NaCl in water d) 1% urea in water

57. The freezing point of 1 molal NaCl solution assuming NaCl to be 100% dissociated in water isa) -1.86°C b) -3.72°C c) +1.86°C d) +3.72°C

58. The freezing point of equimolal aqueous solution will be highest for

a) ClNHHC 356 b) ( )23NOCa

c) ( )33NOLa d) 6126 OHC (glucose)

59. Elevation in boiling point was 0.52°C when 6g of a compound X is dissolved in 1000 g of water [Kb for

water is 0.52 per 1000g of water.] What is the molecular mass of the compound?a) 120 b) 60 c) 600 d) 180

60. The molal freezing point constant for water is 1.86. If 342g of cane sugar is dissolved in 1000g of water,the solution will freeze ata) 1.86°C b) -1.86°C c) -3.92°C d) 3.92°C

61. The molal elevation constant of water is 0.51. The boiling point of 0.1 molal aqueous NaCl solution isnearlya) 100.05°C b) 100.1°C c) 100.2°C d) 101.0°C

62. The molal elevation of an unknown solution is equal to the molal elevation of 0.1M solution of urea. Theconcentration of unknown solution isa) 1 M b) 0.01 M c) 0.1 M d) none of these

63. Benzoic acid dissolved in benzene will show a molecular mass ofa) 122 b) 61 c) 244 d) 366

64. The van’t Hoff factor of a 0.005M aqueous solution of KCl is 1.95. The degree of ionisation of KCl isa) 0.95 b) 0.97 c) 0.94 d) 0.96

Quest Tutorials 52


Quest

65. If the observed and normal osmotic pressures of 1% NaCl solution are 5.7 and 3.0 atm, the degree ofdissociation of NaCl isa) 0.9 b) 1.0 c) 0.57 d) 0.3

66. Which one of the following salts would have the same value of the van’t Hoff factor as that of

( )63 CNFeK ?

a) ( )342 SOAl b) NaCl c) 42SONa d) ( )

332 NOAl

67. Equimolal solutions of A and B show depression in freezing point in the ratio of 2:1. A remains in normalstate in solution. B will be in ....state in solutiona) normal b) associated c) hydrolysed d) dissociated

68. The value of observed and calculated molecular mass of ( )23NOCa are 65.4 and 165 respectively..

The degree of ionisation of the salt will bea) 0.25 b) 0.50 c) 0.60 d) 0.75

69. A solution containing 3.3g of a substance in 125g of benzene (b.pt = 80°C) boils at 80.66°C. If bK for

benzene is 3.28K kg mol-1, the molecular mass of the substance will bea) 130.20 b) 129.20 c) 132.20 d) 131.20

70. The elevation in boiling point of a solution of 10g of a binary electrolyte (molecular mass 100) in 100g of

water is bT∆ . The value of bK for water is

a)M

T f∆b) MT f ×∆ c) mT f ×∆ d)

m

T f∆

71. When mercuric chloride is added to the aqueous solution of potassium iodidea) the boiling point does not change b) freezing point is raisedc) the freezing point is lowered d) freezing point does not change

72. The molecular weight of benzoic acid in benzene as determined by depression in freezing point methodcorresponds toa) ionisation of benzoic acid b) dimerization of benzoic acidc) trimerization of benzoic acid d) solvation of benzoic acid

Answers

1. b 2. a 3. a 4. b 5. d 6. c7. c 8. b 9. c 10. b 11. c 12. b13. d 14. b 15. a 16. a 17. b 18. d19. b 20. a 21. c 22. c 23. b 24. b25. a 26. d 27. b 28. c 29. c 30. b31. d 32. a 33. c 34. c 35. d 36. b 37. b 38. b 39. a 40. b 41. a 42. d43. c 44. c 45. a 46. d 47. c 48. a49. a 50. a 51. a 52. a 53. d 54. b55. b 56. c 57. b 58. d 59. b 60. b61. b 62. c 63. c 64. a 65. a 66. d67. b 68. d 69. d 70. a 71. b 72. b

53 Quest Tutorials


Quest

ELECTROCHEMISTRY

1. Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity due to the presence ofa) free electrons b) free ionsc) free molecules d) atoms of sodium and chlorine

2. A solution of sodium sulphate in water is electrolysed using inert electrodes. The products at the cath-ode and anode are respectively

a) 22 , OH b) 22 , HO c) NaO ,2 d) 22 , SOO

3. The density of Cu is 394.8

−cmg . The quantity of electricity needed to plate an area cmcm 1010 × to

thickness of 2

10−

cm using 4CuSO solution is

a) 13586 C b) 27172 C c) 40 758 C d) 20 348 C

4. A current of 9.65 A is passed for 3h between nickel electrodes in 0.5 L of a 2 M solution of 23 )(NONi .

The molarity of solution after electrolysis would bea) 0.46 M b) 0.625 M c) 0.92 M d) 1.25 M

5. The time required to coat a metal surface of 280cm with cm

3105

−× thick layer of silver (density 10.5

g 3−

cm ) with the passage of 3A current through a silver nitrate solution is

a) 115 s b) 125 s c) 135 s d) 145 s

6. In the electrolysis of 2CuCl solution using copper electrode, if 2.5 g of Cu is deposited at cathode, then

at anode

a) 890 mL of 2Cl at STP is liberated b) 445 mL of 2O at STP is liberated

c) 2.5 g of copper is deposited d) a decrease of 2.5 g of mass takes place

7. The reaction occurring at anode when the electrolysis of 4CuSO is done using Pt electrode, is

a) −++→ eCuCu 2

2 b) −−++→+ eOSOHOHSO 422 2422

24

c) −+++→ eHOOH 442 22

d) −++→ eCuCu 22

22

8. The reaction occurring at anode when the electrolysis of an aqueous solution containing 42SONa and

4CuSO is done using Pt electrode, is

a) −++→ eCUCu 2

2 b) −−++→+ eOSOHOHSO 422 2422

24

c) −+++→ eHOOH 442 22

d) −−+→ egClCl 2)(2 2

9. Which of the following does not evolve oxygen at anode when the electrolysis is carried out

a) dilute 42SOH with Pt electrodes b) fused sodium hydroxide with Pt electrodes

c) acidic water with Pt electrodes d) dilute sulphuric acid using Cu electrodes

10. The standard potentials at 298 K for the following half reactions are given against each

−++ eaqZn 2)(

2 VsZn 762.0)( −

−++ eaqCu 3)(

3 VsCr 740.0)( −

−++ eaqH 2)(2 000.0)(sCr

−++ eaqFe 2)(

3 VaqFe 770.0)(2+

Which is the strongest reducing agent ?

a) )(sZn b) )(sCr c) )(2 gH d) )(2

aqFe+

Quest Tutorials 54


Quest

11. The reaction )()()()()(2

12 sAgaqClaqHsAgClgH ++=+

−+ occurs in the galvanic cell

a) AgaqAgNOaqKClsAgClAg |)(||)(|)(| 3 b) AgaqAgNOaqHClgHPt |)(||)(|)(| 32

c) AgsAgClaqHClgHPt |)(||)(|)(| 2 d) AgsAgClaqKClgHPt |)(||)(|)(| 2

12. The standard reduction potentials, E°, for the half reactions are

ZneZn =+−+

22 VE 76.0−=°

FeeFe =+−+

22 VE 41.0−=°

The emf of the cell involving the reaction FeZnZnFe +→+++ 22 is

a) - 0.35 V b) + 1.17 V c) + 0.35 V d) - 1.17 V

13. Which of the following statements is correct ?a) Cathode is negative terminal both in galvanic and electrolytic cellsb) Anode is positive terminal both in galvanic and electrolytic cells is negative terminal in a galvanic cellc) Cathode is negative terminal in an electrolytic cell whereas anode is negative terminal in a galvaniccelld) Anode is negative terminal in an elevtrolytic cell whereas cathode is positive terminal in a galvaniccell

14. Two half cells have potentials -0.76 V and - 0.13 V respectively. A galvanic cell is made from these twohalf-cells. Which of the following statements is correct ?a) Electrode of half-cell potential - 0.76 V serves as cathodeb) Electrode of half-cell potential - 0.76 V serves as anodec) Electrode of half-cell potential -0.13 V serves as anoded) Electrode of half-cell - 0.76 V serves as positive electrode and - 0.13 V as negative electrode

15. The reduction potential of hydrogen half-cell will be negative if

a) 1)( 2 =Hp atm and MH 1][ =+ b) 1)( 2 =Hp atm and ][

+H = 1M

c) 2)( 2 =Hp atm and ][+

H = 1 M d) 2)( 2 =Hp atm and MH 2][ =+

16. By how much will the potential of half-cell CuCu |2+ change if the solution is diluted to 100 times at 298

K ?a) Increases by 59 mV b) Decreases by 59 mVc) Increases by 29.5 mV d) Decreases by 29.5 mV

17. Given that E° values of MgMgKKAgAg |,|,|2+++ and CrCr |

3 are 0.80 V, - 2.93 V, -2.37 V, and

-0.74 V respectively, which of the following orders regarding the reducing power of metals is correct ?

a) KMgCrAg >>> b) KMgCrAg <<<

c) MgKCrAg >>> d) KMgAgCr >>>

18. Given that 0|2|2=PtHOHE at 298 K. The pressure of 2H gas would be

a)7

10−

atm b)10

10−

atm c)12

10−

atm d)14

10−

atm

19. The value of PtatmHOHE |)1(2|2 at 298 K would be

a) -0.207 V b) -0.414 V c) 0.207 V d) 0.414 V

20. A current of 9.65 A is drawn from a Daniell cell for exactly 1 h. If molar masses of Cu and Zn are 63.5

g 1−

mol and 65.4 g 1−mol respectively, the loss of mass at anode and gain in mass at cathode,

respectively, are

a) 11.43 g, 11.77 g b) 11.77 g , 11.43 g c) 22.86 g, 23.54 g d) 23.54 g, 22.86 g

55 Quest Tutorials


Quest

21. The following facts are available.

22 22 XYYX +→+−−

reactionNoYW →+−

22

22 22 ZXXZ +→+−−

Which of the following statements is correct ?

a)o

ZZ

o

XX

o

YY

o

WWEEEE

2|2|2|2|−−−− >>> b)

o

ZZ

o

XX

o

YY

o

WWEEEE

2|2|2|2|−−−− <<<

c)o

ZZ

o

XX

o

YY

o

WWEEEE

2|2|2|2|−−−− >>< d)

o

ZZ

o

XX

o

YY

o

WWEEEE

2|2|2|2|−−−− <<>

22. Which of the following facts is not true ?

a) If )|( MMEn+

° is negative , +H will be reduced to 2H by the metal M

b) If )|( MMEn+

° is positive, +nM will be reduced to M by 2H

c) In a cell, MMn

|+ assembly is attached to hydrogen-half cell. To produce spontaneous cell reac-

tion, metal M will act as negative electrode, if the potential MMn

|+ is negative. It will serve as positive

electrode, MMn

|+ has a positive cell potential.

d) Compounds of active metals ),,( MgNaZn are reducible by 2H whereas those of noble metals

),,( AuAgCu are not reducible.

23. Adding powdered Pb and Fe to a solution containing 1.0 M in each of +2Pb and

+2Fe ions would result

into the formation of

a) more of Pb and +2

Fe ions b) more of Fe and +2

Fe ions

c) more of Fe and Pb d) more of +2

Fe and +2

Pb ions

VEandVEGiveno

PbPb

o

FeFe13.044.0(

|2

|2 −=−= ++

24. A solution containing one mole per litre each of 23232323 )(,)(,,)( NOMgNOHgAgNONOCu is being

electrolysed by using inert electrodes.

The values of stadard potentials are, VEEVEo

CuCu

o

HgHg

o

AgAg34.0,79.0,80.0

|2

|22

|=== +++

VEo

MgMg3.2

|2 −=+ . With increasing voltage, the sequence of deposition of metals on the cathode will

be

a) MgCuHgAg ,,, b) AgHgCuMg ,,, c) CuHgAg ,, d) AgHgCu ,,

25. The standard reduction potentials of CuCu |2+ and

++CuCu |

2 are 0.337 V and 0.153 V, respectively..

The standard electrode potential of CuCu |+ half cell is

a) 0.184 V b) 0.827 V c) 0.521 V d) 0.490 V

26. A standard hydrogen electroded has zero electrode potential becausea) hydrogen is easiest to oxidise b) this electrode potential is assumed to be zeroc) hydrogen atom has one electron d) hydrogen is the lightest element

27. The stadard reduction potential values of three metallic cations, X, Y, Z are 0.52, - 0.03 and -1.18 V,respectively. The order of reducing power of the corresponding metals is

a) XZY >> b) ZYX >> c) XYZ >> d) YXZ >>

Quest Tutorials 56


Quest

28. A gas X at 1 atm is bubbled through a solution containing a mixture of 1 M Y and 1M Z at 25°C . If the

reduction potential of XYZ >> , thena) Y will oxidise X and not Zb) Y will oxidise Z and not Xc) Y will oxidise both X and Z d) Y will reduce both X and Z

29. For the electrochemical cell, VMMEXXMM 44.0)|(,|||| =°+−+ and VXXE 33.0)|( =°

− . From

this data, one can deduce that

a)−+

+→+ XMXM is the spontaneous reaction

b) XMXM +→+−+

is the spontaneous reaction

c) VEcell 77.0= d) VEcell 77.0−=

30. Which of the following statements about the spontaneous reaction occuring in a galvanic cell is alwaystrue ?

a) KQandGEocell <<°∆> ,0,0 b) KQandGE

ocell ><°∆> ,0,0

c) KQandGEocell >>°∆> ,0,0 d) KQandGEcell <<∆> ,0,0

31. STHG ∆−∆=∆ and

∆+∆=∆

pdT

GdTHG

)( then

dT

dEcell is

a)nF

S∆b)

S

nE

∆c) cellnFE− d) cellnFE+

32. )(2

aqCuZn+

+ )(2

aqZnCu+

+ Reaction quotient is ][

][2

2

+

+

=Cu

ZnQ . Variation of cellE with log Q is

of the type as shown as fig. With cellEVOA ,10.1= will be 1.1591 V when

A

O Qlog

cellE

a) 01.0]/[][22

=++

ZnCu b) 01.0]/[][22

=++

CuZn

c) 1.0]/[][22

=++

CuZn d) 1]/[][22

=++

CuZn

33.21

22 )(|)1(|)(ppHPtMHHPt

+ (where 1p and 2p are pressures), cell reaction will be spontaneous if

a) 21 pp = b) 21 pp > c) 12 pp > d) atmp 11 =

34.

21

22 )(|)1.0(|)(pp

ClPtMHClClPt cell reaction will be spontaneous if

a) 21 pp = b) 21 pp > c) 12 pp > d) atmp 11 =

35. For OHHPt 22 |)( , electrode potential at 298 K is

a) -0.2364 V b) -0.4137 V c) 0.4137 V d) 0.00 V

36. During electrolysis of acidified water, 2O gas is formed at the anode. To produce 2O gas at the anode

at the rate of 0.224 c.c per second at STP, current passed isa) 0.224 A b) 2.24 A c) 9.65 A d) 3.86 A

57 Quest Tutorials


Quest

37. When a lead storage battery is discharged

a) 2SO is evolved b) lead is formed

c) lead sulphate is formed d) sulphuric acid is consumed

38. 100 mL of a buffer of 1M )(3 aqNH and 1M )(4 aqNH+ are placed in two voltaic cells separately. AA

current of 1.5 A is passes through both cells for 20 minutes. If electrolysis of water only takes place

)(442 22 RHSOHeOOH−−

→++

)(442 22 LHSeOHOH−+

++→ , then pH of the

a) LHS half-cell will increase b) RHS half-cell will increasec) both half-cells will increase d) both half-cells will decrease

39. A 0.200 M KOH solution is electrolysed for 1.5 h using a current of 8.00 A. How many mol of 2O were

produced at the anode ?

a) 0.448 b) 0.224 c) 0.112 d)2

1024.2−

×

40. Anode mud is a

a) mixture of impure metals like Fe b) 2SO gas

c) mixture of PtAuAg ,, d) none

41. On passing one faraday of electricity through a dilute solution of an acid, the volume of hydrogenobtained at N.T.P. isa) 22400 mL b) 1120 mL c) 2240 mL d) 11200 mL

42. Copper sulphate solution is electrolysed between two platinum electrodes. A current is passed until1.6g of oxygen is liberated at anode. The amount of copper deposited at the cathode during the sameperiod isa) 6.36g b) 63.6g c) 12.7g d) 3.2g

43. One faraday of charge was passed through the electrostatic cells placed in series containing solutions

of +

Ag , +2Ni and +3

Cr respectively. The amount of Ag (at. mass 108), Ni (at. mass 59) and Cr (at.

mass 52) deposited will be Ag Ni Cr

a) 108g 29.5g 17.5gb) 108g 59.0g 52.0gc) 108g 108.0g 108.0gd) 108g 117.5g 166.0g

44. A certain current liberated 0.504g of hydrogen in 2 hours. How many grams of copper can be liberated

by the same current flowing for the same time in 4CuSO solution?

a) 12.7 g b) 15.9 g c) 31.8 g d) 63.5 g

45. The equivalent conductance at infinite dilution of NaCl, HCl and COONaCH3 at 298K are 126.0,

426.0 and 91.01

ohm−

. The equivalent conductance of acetic acid at infinite dilution at the same tem-

perature will be

a) 644.0 b) 300.0 c) 517.0 d) 391.046. The standard reduction potentials at 25°C for the following half reactions are given against each

( ) −++ eaqZn 22 ( )sZn , -0.762

( ) −++ eaqCr 33 ( )sCr , -0.740

−++ eH 22 ( )gH2 , 0.00

−++ eFe

3 +2Fe , 0.77

Which is the strongest reducing agent?

a) Zn b) Cr c) ( )gH2 d) ( )aqFe+2

Quest Tutorials 58


Quest

47. A solution containing one mole per litre of each ( ) ;23NOCu ;3AgNO ( ) ;232 NOHg ( )23NOHg is

being electrolysed by using inert electrodes. The values of standard electrode potentials (reduction

potentials) are voltAgAg 80.0/ =+

, voltHHg 79.0/2 22 =

+,

+2/ CuCu volt24.0+= ,

voltMgMg 37.2/ 2−=

+. With increasing voltage, the sequence of deposition of metals on the cath-

ode will be

a) CuHgAg ,, b) AgHgCu ,, c) MgCuHgAg ,,, d) AgHgCuMg ,,,

48. Given standard electrode potentials;

;33 FeeFe →+−+ voltE 036.0−=°

;22FeeFe →+

−+ voltE 440.0−=°

The standard electrode potential E° for +−+→+

23 FeeFe is

a) -0.476 volt b) -0.404 volt c) 0.440 volt d) -0.772 volt

49. The potential of a hydrogen electrode at HP 10 is

a) 0.51 volt b) 0 volt c) -0.5.91 volt d) 0.059 volt50. The emf of the cell,

( ) ( ) AgMAgMNiNi 0.10.12 ++

voltNiNiforE 25.0/[2

−=°+

, ]80.0/ voltAgAgforE =°+

is given by

a) volt55.080.025.0 =+− b) ( ) volt05.180.025.0 −=+−−

c) ( ) volt05.125.080.00 +=−−+ d) ( ) volt55.025.080.0 −=−−−

51. ( ) voltNiNiE 25.0/2−=°

+, ( ) voltAuAuE 50.1/3

=°+

. The emf of the voltaic cell

( ) ( ) AuMAuMNiNi 0.10.1 32 ++ is

a) 1.25 volt b) -1.75 volt c) 1.75 volt d) 4.0 volt

52. When the electric current is passed through a cell having an electrolyte, the positive ions move towardscathode and negative ions towards the anode. If the cathode is pulled out of the solutiona) the positive and negative ions will move towards anode.b) the positive ions will start moving towards the anode while negative ions will stop moving.c) the negative ions will continue to move towards anode while positive ions will stop moving.d) the positive and negative ions will start moving randomly.

53. The oxidation potentials of Zn, Cu, Ag, 2H and Ni are 0.76, -0.34, -0.80, 0.55 volt respectively. Which

of the following reactions will provide maximum voltage?

a) +++→+

22 ZnCuCuZn b) +++→+

222 ZnAgAgZn

c) CuHCuH +→+++ 22

2d) NiHNiH +→+

++ 222

54. Which one of the following will increase the voltage of the cell?

AgSnAgSn 22 2+→+

++

a) Increase in the size of silver rod b) Increase in the concentration of +2Sn ions

c) Increase in the concentration of +

Ag ions d) None of the above

59 Quest Tutorials


Quest

55. A chemist wants to produce ( )gCl2 from molten NaCl. How many grams could be produced if he uses

a steady current of 2 ampere for 2.5 minutes?a) 3.55 g b) 1.775 g c) 0.110 g d) 0.1775 g

56. In the electrolysis of 2CuCl solution, the mass of cathode is increased by 6.4g. What occurred at

copper anode?

a) 0.224 litre of 2Cl was liberated b) 1.12 litre of oxygen was liberated

c) 0.05 mole +2Cu passed, to the solution d) 0.1 mole +2Cu passed to the cathode

57. Consider the reaction, ( ) ( ) ( ) 22 22 BraqClaqBrgCl +→+−− . The emf of the cel l, when

MBrBrCl 01.0][][][ 2 ===−−

and 2Cl gas is 1 atm pressure, will be (E° for the above reaction is =

0.29 volt)a) 0.54 volt b) 0.35 volt c) 0.24 volt d) -0.29 volt

58. How much silver will be obtained by that quantity of current which displaces 5.6 litre of 2H ?

a) 54 g b) 13.5 g c) 20 g d) 108 g

59. What is the number of coulombs required for the conversion of one mole of −4MnO to one mole of

+2Mn ?

a) 965005× b) 965003× c) 96500 d) 9650

60. Three faradays of electricity was passed through an aqueous solution of iron metal(at. mass 56). Themass deposited at the cathode isa) 56 g b) 84 g c) 112 g d) 168 g

61. The standard electrode potentials of Zn, Ag and Cu are -0.76, 0.80 and 0.34 volt respectively. Then

a) Ag can oxidise Zn and Cu b) Ag can reduce +2Zn and +2Cu

c) Zn can reduce +2

Ag and +2Cu d) Cu can oxidise Zn and Ag

62. The standard emf for the cell reaction CuZnCuZn +→+++ 22 is 1.10 volt at 25°C. The emf for the

cell reaction when 0.1M +2

Cu and 0.1M +2Zn solutions are used at 25°C, is

a) 1.10 volt b) 0.110 volt c) -1.10 volt d) -0.110 volt

63. Three moles of electrons are passed through three solutions in succession containing 3AgNO , 4CuSO ,

and 3AuCl respectively. The ratio of amounts of cations reduced at cathode will be

a) 3:2:1 b) 3:1:2 c) 1:2:3 d) 2:3:6

64. In the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of NaOH , 2.8 litre of oxygen gas at NTP was liberated at

anode. How much of hydrogen gas was liberated at cathode?a) 2.8 litre b) 5.6 litre c) 11.2 litre d) 22.4 litre

65. Two half-cells have potentials -0.44 and 0.799 volt respectively. These two are coupled to make agalvanic cell. Which of the following will be true?a) Electrode of half-cell potential -0.44 V will act as anodeb) Electrode of half-cell potential -0.44 V will act as cathodec) Electrode of half-cell potential 0.799 V will act as anoded) Electrode of half-cell potential -0.44 V will act as a positive terminal

Quest Tutorials 60


Quest

66. When a lead storage battery is charged

a) 2PbO is dissolved

b) the lead electrode becomes coated with lead sulphatec) sulfuric acid is regeneratedc) the amount of acid decreases

67. The emf of the cell involving the following reaction, +++→+ HAgHAg 222 2 is 0.80 volt. The

standard oxidation potential of silver electrode isa) -0.80 volt b) 0.80 volt c) 0.04 volt d) -0.40 volt

68. Which of the following reactions occurs at cathode during charging of storage battery?

a) PbePb →+−+ 22 b) −+

+→ ePbPb 22

c)4

24

2PbSOSOPb →+

−+

d) −−++++→+ eSOHPbOOHPbSO 242 2

2224

69. Consider the following statements

i) Unit of specific conductivity is 11cmohm

−−

ii) Specific conductivity of strong electrolytes decreases on dilution.iii) The amount of an ion discharged during electrolysis does not depend upon resistanceiv) The unit of electrochemical equivalence is g/coulomba) All are correct b) All are wrongc) Only (i), (ii), (iv) are correct d) Only (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct

Answers

1. b 2. a 3. b 4. c 5. b 6. d7. c 8. c 9. d 10. a 11. c 12. c13. c 14. b 15. c 16. b 17. b 18. d19. b 20. b 21. a 22. d 23. a 24. c25. c 26. b 27. a 28. a 29. b 30. d31. a 32. b 33. b 34. c 35. c 36. d37. c 38. b 39. c 40. c 41. d 42. a43. a 44. b 45. d 46. a 47. a 48. d49. c 50. c 51. c 52. d 53. b 54. c55. c 56. d 57. b 58. a 59. a 60. b61. c 62. a 63. d 64. b 65. a 66. c67. a 68. a 69. a

61 Quest Tutorials


Quest

CHEMICAL ENERGITICS

1. The difference between heats of reaction at constant pressure and constant volume for the reaction,

( ) ( ) ( ) ( )lOHgCOgOlHC 22266 612152 +→+ , at 25°C in kJ mol-1 is

a) -7.43 b) +3.72 c) -3.72 d) +7.43

2. The products of combustion of an aliphatic thiol (RSH) at 298 K are

a) ( ) ( ) ( )gSOgOHgCO 222 and , b) ( ) ( ) ( )gSOlOHgCO 222 and ,

c) ( ) ( ) ( )gSOlOHlCO 222 and , d) ( ) ( ) ( )lSOlOHgCO 222 and ,

3. The expression, °∆+°∆=°∆ HHH vapfussubl , is true at all

a) temperatures b) pressuresc) temperatures and pressures d) temperatures and 1 atm pressure condition

4. The word “standard” in standard molar enthalpy change impliesa) temperature 298 K b) pressure 1 atmc) temperature 298 K and pressure 1 atm d) all temperatures and all pressure

5. Given ( ) 12.45 −° =∆ molkJHCNHioniz

and ( ) 13 1.2 −

° =∆ molkJCOOHCHHioniz. Which

one of the following facts is true?

a) ( ) ( )COOHCHpKHCNpK aa 3= b) ( ) ( )COOHCHpKHCNpK aa 3>

c) ( ) ( )COOHCHpKHCNpK aa 3<

d) ( ) ( ) ( )COOHCHpKHCNpK aa 307.2/17.45=

6. For a monatomic gas, the value of the ratio of mpC , and mVC , is

a) 5/3 b) 7/5 c) 9/7 d) 9/11

7. For a diatomic gas, the value of the ratio of mpC , and mVC , is

a) 5/3 b) 7/5 c) 9/7 d) 9/11

8. For a linear triatomic gas, the value of the ratio of mpC , and mVC , is

a) 5/3 b) 7/5 c) 9/7 d) 15/13

9. Molar heat capacity of water in equilibrium with ice at constant pressure isa) zero b) infinity

c) 1145.40 −− molKkJ d) 1148.75 −− molKkJ

10. For a nonlinear triatomic gas, the value of the ratio mpC , and mVC , is

a) 7/5 b) 9/7 c) 7/6 d) 17/13

11. Standard molar enthalpy of formation of 2CO is equal to

a) zerob) the standard molar enthalpy of combustion of gaseous carbon

c) the sum of standard molar enthalpies of formation of CO and 2O

d) the standard molar enthalpy of combustion of carbon(graphite)

Quest Tutorials 62


Quest

12. The ofH∆ for ( ) ( )gCOgCO ,2 and ( )gOH2 are -393.5, -110.5 and

18.241 −− molkJ respec-

tively. The standard enthalpy change (in kJ mol -1) for the reaction

( ) ( ) ( ) ( )gOHgCOgHgCO 222 +→+ is

a) 524.1 b) 41.2 c) -262.5 d) -41.2

13. If 1.00 kcal of heat is added to 1.2L of oxygen in a cylinder at constant pressure of 1.00 atm, the

volume increases to 1.5L. E∆ for this process isa) 0.993 kcal b) 1.0073 kcal c) 0.0993 kcal d) 1.00073 kcal

14. Using only the following data:

( ) ( )gCOsOFe 332 + ( ) ( )gCOsFe 232 + kJH 8.26−=°∆

( ) ( )gCOsFe 2+ ( ) ( )gCOsFeO + kJH 5.16−=°∆

the °∆H value, in kilojoules, for the reaction ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )gCOsFeOgCOsOFe 232 2 +→+ is calcu-

lated to bea) -43.3 b) -10.3 c) +6.2 d) +10.3

15. Heat of neutralisation of CsOH with all strong acids is 13.4 kcal mol-1. The heat released on neutralisationof CsOH with HF (weak acid) is 16.4 kcal mol-1.

°∆H of ionisation of HF isa) 3.0 kcal b) -3.0 kcal c) 6.0 kcal d) 0.3 kcal

16. The C-Cl bond energy can be calculated from

a) ( )lCClH f ,4°∆ only b) ( )lCClH f ,4°∆ and ( )2ClD

c) ( ) ( )24 ,, ClDgCClH f°∆

d) ( ) ( ) ( )gCHClDlCClH ff ,,, 24 °∆°∆ and ( )4CClH vap°∆

17. Using bond enthalpies (symbolized by ε ), an estimated value of °∆H for the reaction

( ) ( ) ( )gCHCHgHgCHCH 33222 −→+== would be

a) CCHCHHCC −−−= ε−ε−ε+ε 2 b) CCHCHHCC −−−= ε−ε−ε+ε 6

c) CCHCHHCC −−−= ε−ε−ε−ε 4 d) CCHCHHCC −−−= ε−ε−ε+ε 4

18. From the given reactions

,24 242 OHSiFHFSiO +→+ kcalH 17.10−=∆

,24 242 OHSiClHClSiO +→+ kcalH 7.36=∆it may be concluded that

a) HF will attack 2SiO and HCl will not b) HCl will attack 2SiO and HF will not

c) HF and HCl both attack 2SiO d) none attacks 2SiO

19. Which is not an intensive property?a) boiling point b) refractive index c) molarity d) volume

20. 1 mol of 3NH gas at 27°C is expanded under adiabatic condition to make volume 8 times ( )33.1=γ .

Final temperature and work done respectively area) 150K, 900 cal b) 150K, 400 cal c) 250K, 1000 cal d) 200K, 800 cal

63 Quest Tutorials


Quest

21. The standard heat of combustion of propane is -2220.1 kJ mol-1. The standard heat of vaporisation of

liquid water is 44.0 kJ mol-1. What is °∆H of

( ) ( ) ( ) ( )gOHgCOgOgHC 22283 435 +→+

a) -2220.1 kJ b) -2044.1 kJ c) -2396.1 kJ d) -2176.1 kJ

22. The gas absorbs 100J heat and is simultaneously compressed by a constant extermal pressure of

1.50 atm from 8L to 2L in volume. Hence E∆ will be

a) -812 J b) 812 J c) 1011 J d) 911 J

23. RCC vp =− . This R is

a) Change in K.E. b) change in rotational energyc) work done which system can do on expanding the gas per mol per degree increase in temperatured) all correct

24. Which is equal to the total work done?a) decrease in G b) decrease in A c) decrease in H d) decrease in E

25. Heat of neutralisation of oxalic acid is -25.4 kcal mol-1 using strong base, NaOH. Hence enthalpy

change for the process 422 OCH −++

2422 OCH , is

a) 2.0 kcal b) -11.8 kcal c) 1.0 kcal d) -1.0 kcal

26. Inversion temperature is

a)a

Rb

2b)

Rb

a2c)

a

Rbd)

Rb

a

27. Heat of combustions of 2, HC and 62HC are ,1x− 2x− and 3x− . Hence heat of formation of

62HC is

a) 321 32 xxx +−− b) 321 xxx +−− c) 213 32 xxx ++− d) 321 xxx −+

28. B.E. of N-H, H-H and NN ≡≡ bonds are 21,qq and 3q . H∆ of

322 23 NHHN →+ is

a) 123 23 qqq −+ b) 231 22 qqq −− c) 123 63 qqq −+ d) 321 qqq −+

29. Standard molar enthalpy of formation of 2CO is equal to

a) zerob) the standard molar enthalpy of combustion of gaseous carbon

c) the sum of standard molar enthalpies of CO and 2O

d) the standard molar enthalpy of combustion of carbon (s).

30. Heat of hydrogenation of ethene is 1x and that of benzene is 2x . Hence resonance energy of ben-

zene is

a) 21 xx − b) 21 xx + c) 213 xx − d) 21 3xx −

31. Heat of neutralistion of a weak dibasic acid by NaOH is -26 kcal mol-1. Hence its dissociation energy isa) 12.3 kcal mol-1 b) 1.4 kcal mol-1 c) -13.7 kcal mol-1 d) -1.4 kcal mol-1

32. ( ) ( ) ( )lOHgOgH 2222

1→+ ( ) ;.. 1xHHEB =− ( ) ;.. 2xOOEB === ( ) 3.. xHOEB =− . La-

Quest Tutorials 64


Quest

tent heat of vaporisation for water liquid into water vapour = 4x . Then fH∆ (heat of formation of liquid

water) is

a) 432

12

xxx

x +−+ b) 42

132

2 xx

xx −−− c) 432

1 22

xxx

x −−+ d) 432

1 22

xxx

x +−+

33. If H∆ of a reaction is 100 kJ mol-1, then the activation energy must bea) greater than 100 kJ mol-1b) less than 100 kJ mol-1

c) equal to 100 kJ mol-1 d) none is correct

34. A certain mass of gas is made to undergo separately adiabatic and isothermal expansions to the samepressure, starting from the same initial conditions of temperature and pressure. Then, as compared toisothermal expansion, in the case of adiabtic expansion, the finala) volume and temperature will be higher.b) volume and temperature will be lower .c) temperature will be lower but the final volume will be higher.d) volume will be lower but the final temperature will be higher.

35. The dissolution of ClNH4 in water is endothermic even though ClNH4 dissolves in water sponta-

neously. Which one of the following best explains this behaviour?

a) The bonds in solid ClNH4 are weak

b) The entropy-driving force causes dissolutionc) Endothermic processes are energetically favourabled) The dissolving process is not related to energy

36. The work done in ergs for a reversible expansion of one mole of an ideal gas from a volume of 10 litreto 20 litre at 25°C is

a) 2log2981031.8303.2 7 ××× b) 2log2980821.0303.2 ××

c) 5.0log2980821.0303.2 ×× d) 2log2982303.2 ××

37. Which of the following is an endothermic reaction?

a) ( ) ( ) ( )lOHgOgH 222 22 →+ b) ( ) ( ) ( )gNOgOgN 222 →+

c) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )lOHaqNaClaqHClaqNaOH 2+→+

d) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )lOHgCOgOaqOHHC 22252 323 +→+

38. Which of the following reactions is endothermic?

a) ( ) ( ) ( )gCOsCaOsCaCO 23 +→ b) ( ) ( ) ( )sFeSsSsFe →+

c) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )lOHaqNaClaqHClaqNaOH 2+→+

d) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )lOHgCOgOgCH 2224 22 +→+

39. The formation of water from ( )gH2 and ( )gO2 is an exothermic process because

a) the chemical energy of ( )gH2 and ( )gO2 is more than that of water

b) the chemical energy of ( )gH2 and ( )gO2 is less than that of water

c) the temperature of ( )gH2 and ( )gO2 is higher than that of water

d) the temperature of ( )gH2 and ( )gO2 is lower than that of water

65 Quest Tutorials


Quest

40. The difference between heats of reaction at constant pressure and constant volume for the reaction,

( ) ( ) ( ) ( )lOHgCOgOlHC 22266 612152 +→+ at 25°C in kJ is

a) +7.43 b) +3.72 c) -7.43 d) -3.72

41. For a gaseous reaction, ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) EgDgCgBgA ∆+→+ ,333 is 17 kcal at 27°C. Assuming

R = 2 cal K-1 mol-1, the value of H∆ for the above reaction isa) 15.8 kcal b) 18.2 kcal c) 20.0 kcal d) 16.4 kcal

42. For the reactions,

(i) ( ) ( ) ( ) kJxgHClgClgH +=+ 222 (ii) ( ) ( ) ( ) kJygClgHgHCl −+= 222

which of the following statement is correct?

a) 0>− yx b) 0<− yx c) 0=− yx d) none of these

43. ( ) ( ) ( )Rfyfxf HHH ∆∆∆ ,, and ( )SfH∆ denote the enthalpies of formation of x, y, R and S

respectively. The enthalpy of the reaction, SRyx +→+ is given by

a) ( ) ( )yfxf HH ∆+∆ b) ( ) ( )SfRf HH ∆+∆

c) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )SfRfyfxf HHHH ∆−∆−∆+∆ d) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )yfxfSfRf HHHH ∆−∆−∆+∆

44. If kcalOHOHH 7.132 +=+ −+, then heat of complete neutralisation of one gram mole of 42SOH

with strong base will bea) 13.7 kcal b) 27.4 kcal c) 6.85 kcal d) 3.425 kcal

45. From the thermochemical reactions,

;2

12 COOCgraphite →+ kJH 5.110−=∆

;2

122 COOCO →+ kJH 2.283−=∆ , the heat of reaction of ( ) 22 COOC graphite →+ is

a) +393.7 kJ b) -393.7 kJ c) -172.7 kJ d) +172.7 kJ

46. ;2

1222 OHOH →+ kcalH 09.68−=∆

( ) ;2

122 HaqKOHwaterOHK +→++ kcalH 0.48−=∆

( );aqKOHwaterKOH →+ kcalH 0.14−=∆

the heat of formation of KOH is

a) 0.144839.68 −+− b) 0.140.4839.68 +−−

c) 0.140.4839.68 +−+ d) 0.140.4839.68 −++

47. The enthalpies of combustion of ( )graphiteC and ( )diamondC are -393.5 and -395.4 kJ/mol respectively..

The enthalpy of conversion of ( )graphiteC to ( )diamondC in kJ/mol is

a) -1.9 b) -788.9 c) 1.9 d) 788.9

48. The heat of combustion of yellow phosphorus and red phosphorus are -9.91 kJ and -8.78 kJ respectvely.The heat of transition of yellow phosphorus isa) -18.69 kJ b) +1.13 kJ c) 18.69 kJ d) -1.13 kJ

Quest Tutorials 66


Quest

49. Given ( ) ( ) ( ) kcalgCOgOsC 2.9422 +→+

( ) ( ) ( ) kcallOHgOgH 3.682

1222 +→+

( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) kcallOHgCOgOgCH 8.21022 2224 ++→+

The heat of formation of methane in kcal will be

a) 45.9 b) 47.8 c) 20.0 d) 47.3

50. The heat of combustion of ethanol determined in a bomb calorimeter is -670.48 kcal mol-1 at 298K.

What is E∆ at 298K for the reaction?a) -760 kcal mol-1 b) -670.48 kcal mol-1 c) +760 kcal mol-1 d) +670.48 kcal mol-1

51. For an endothermic reaction where H∆ represents the enthalpy of reaction, the minimum value of theenergy of activation will be

a) less than H∆ b) zero c) equal to H∆ d) more than H∆

52. If ;22 SOOS →+ kJH 2.298−=∆

;2

1322 SOOSO →+ kJH 7.98−=∆

;4223 SOHOHSO →+ kJH 2.130−=∆

OHOH 2222

1→+ ; kJH 3.227−=∆ the heat of formation of 42 OSH will be

a) -754.4 kJ b) +320.5 kJ c) -650.3 kJ d) -433.7 kJ

53. If °∆ fH for ( )lOH 22 and ( )lOH2 are -188 kJ mol-1 and -286 kJ mol-1, what will be the enthalpy

change of the reaction ( ) ( ) ( )gOlOHlOH 2222 2 +→ ?

a) 146 kJ mol-1 b) -196 kJ mole-1 c) -494 kJ mole-1 d) -98 kJ mole-1

54. Given, ( ) ( ) ( );22 gCOgOsC →+ kJH 395−=∆

( ) ( ) ( );22 gSOgOsS →+ kJH 295−=∆

( ) ( ) ( ) ( );23 2222 gSOgCOgOlCS +→+ kJH 1110−=∆

The heat of formation of ( )lCS2 is

a) 250 kJ b) 62.5 kJ c) 31.25 kJ d) 125 kJ

55. The heat of combustion of rhombic and monoclinic sulphur are -70960 and -71030 calorie respectively.What will be the heat of conversion of rhombic sulphur to monoclinic sulphur?a) -70960 cal b) -71030 cal c) 70 cal d) -70 cal

56. The enthalpy of combustion of cyclohexane, cyclohexene and 2H are respectively -3920,

-3800 and -241 kJ mol-1. The heat of hydrogenation of cyclohexene isa) -121 kJ mole-1 b) 121 kJ mole-1 c) -242 kJ mol-1 d) 242 kJ mol-1

57. One mole of an ideal gas at 300K is expanded isothermally from an initial volume of 1 litre to 10 litre.

The E∆ for this process is (R = 2 cal K-1 mol-1)

a) 163.7 cal b) 1381.1 cal c) 9 litre-atm d) zero

67 Quest Tutorials


Quest

58. The latent heat of vaporisation of a liquid at 500K and 1 atm pressure is 10 kcal/mol. What will be the

change in internal energy ( )E∆ of 3 moles of liquid at the same temperature?

a) 13.0 kcal b) -13.0 kcal c) 27.0 kcal d) -27.0 kcal

59. The enthalpy change of a reaction does not depend ona) State of reactants and products b) Nature of reactants and productsc) Different intermediate reactions d) Initial and final enthalpy change of reaction

60. Which plot represents an exothermic reaction?

a)

R

PH

coordinateReaction

b) R

P

H

coordinateReaction

c)

R P

H

coordinateReaction

d)

R P

H

coordinateReaction

61. kcalxSOOS 22

332 +→+ ; kcalySOOSO +→+ 322

2

1

The heat of formation of 2SO is

a) xy 2− b) yx +2 c) ( )yx + d) yx /2

62. Given,

( ) ( )gClgNH 23 3+ ( ) ( );33 gHClgNCl + 1H∆−

( ) ( )gHgN 22 3+ ( )gHN32 ; 2H∆−

( ) ( )gClgH 22 + ( )gHCl2 ; 3H∆−

The heat of formation of ( )gNCl3 in terms of 1H∆ , 2H∆ and 3H∆ is

a) 3212

3

2

1HHHH f ∆−∆+∆−=∆ b) 321

2

3

2

1HHHH f ∆−∆−∆−=∆

c) 3212

3

2

1HHHH f ∆−∆−∆=∆ d) None

63. The value of °∆H for the reaction ( ) ( ) ( )gCuIgIgCu →+ −+ is -446 kJ mol-1. If the ionisation

energy of ( )gCu is 745 kJ mol-1 and the electron affinity of ( )gI is -295 kJ mol-1, then the value of

°∆H for the formation of one mole of ( )gCuI from ( )gCu and ( )gI is

a) -446 kJ b) 450 kJ c) 594 kJ d) 4 kJ

64. If the enthalpy change for the reaction,

( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) kcalHgHClgClCHgClgCH 25,324 −=∆+→+ , Bond energy of C-H is 20 kcal,

bond energies of H-H and H-Cl are same in magnitude, then for the reaction

( ) ( ) ( ) =∆→+ HgHClgClgH ,222

a) -22.5 kcal/mol b) -20.5 kcal/mol c) -32.5 kcal/mol d) -12.5 kcal/mol

Quest Tutorials 68


QuestAnswers

1. a 2. b 3. d 4. b 5. b 6. a7. c 8. d 9. b 10. c 11. d 12. b13. a 14. c 15. b 16. d 17. a 18. a19. d 20. a 21. b 22. c 23. c 24. b25. a 26. b 27. a 28. c 29. d 30. c31. b 32. c 33. a 34. b 35. b 36. a37. b 38. a 39. a 40. c 41. b 42. c43. d 44. b 45. b 46. b 47. c 48. b49. c 50. c 51. c 52. a 53. b 54. d55. c 56. a 57. d 58. c 59. c 60. a61. a 62. a 63. d 64. c 65. c 66. a

65. The standard heat of formation of sodium ions in aqueous solution from the following dataHeat of formation of NaOH (aq) at 25°C = - 470.7 kJ

Heat of formation of −OH (aq) at 25°C = - 228.8 kJ is

a) - 251.9 kJ b) 241.9 kJ c) -241.9 kJ d) 251.9 kJ

66. AB, 2A and 2B are diatomic molecules. If the bond enthalpies of 2A , AB and 2B are in the ratio

1:1:0.5 and the enthalpy of formation of AB from 2A and 2B is -100 kJ mol-1, what is the bond

enthalpy of 2A ?

a) 400 kJ mol-1 b) 200 kJ mol-1 c) 100 kJ mol-1 d) 300 kJ mol-1

69 Quest Tutorials


Quest

SOLIDSTATE

1. Metallic gold crystallises in fcc lattice with edge-length 4.070 Å . Closest distance between gold atomsisa) 2.035Å b) 8.140Å c) 2.878Å d) 1.357Å

2. ABCABC types of arrangement of different layers, in a closed packed structure is called

a) hcp b) bcc

c) fcc d) cubic closed packed ( )ccp

3. The hcp arrangement of ions is described by

a) ABBA....... b) ABABA...... c) ABCABC....... d) ABCCBA.......

4. The C.N. of ccp structure isa) 16 b) 12 c) 8 d) 4

5. Zinc blende structure is obtained when +2Zn occupies

a) all tetrahedral sites b) half tetrahedral sitesc) all octahedral sites d) half octahedral sites

6. Frenkel defect appears ina) AgI b) ZnS c) AgBr d) all

7. Lithium selenide can be described as a closest packed array of selenide ions with lithium ions in all ofthe tetrahedral holes. Formula of lithium selenide is

a) SeLi2 b) LiSe c) 2LiSe d) SeLi3

8. In hcp structure, the packing fraction isa) 0.68 b) 0.74 c) 0.50 d) 0.54

9. The presence of F-centres in a crystal makes ita) conducting b) colourless c) coloured d) non-conducting

10. The CsCl structure is observed in alkali halides only when the radius of the cation is sufficiently largeto keep its eight nearest-neighbour anion from touching. Minimum value of ratio of cation to anion

radii, )/( −+ rr is needed to prevent this contacta) 0.414 b) 0.225 c) 0.732 d) 0.525

11. How many octahedral sites per sphere in a cubic-closest packed ( )fcc structure are there

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

12. Of the following crystal lattices, the one that has the largest packing fraction is

a) bcc b) fcc d) simple cubic d) simple trigonal

13. A compound is formed by elements A and B arranged in a cubic structure. A atoms are at the cornersand B atoms are at the face centers. What is the formula of the compound

a) AB b) 2AB c) 3AB d) BA3

14. An electron trapped in an anion vacancy within the crystal is calleda) n-type conductor b) p-type conductorc) F-centre d) insulator

15. The n-type semiconductor is obtained when Si is doped witha) Al b) Ge c) B d) As

Quest Tutorials 70


Quest

16. The p-type semiconductor is obtained when Si is doped witha) Al b) Ge c) Ga d) As

17. BCC type structure is fora) NaCl b) CsCl c) both d) none

18. FCC type structure is fora) CsCl b) AgCl c) MgO d) b and c

19. 6 : 6 of NaCl coordination changes to 8 : 8 coordination ona) applying high P b) increase in temperaturec) both d) no effect on coordination

20. 8 : 8 coordination of CsCl is found to change into 6 : 6 ona) applying high P b) increase in temperaturec) both d) none

21. Antifluorite structure is for

a) 2ThO b) ONa2 c) both d) none

22. At critical temperature of liquid, surface tension isa) zero b) infinitec) different for different liquids d) can’t be measured

23. An alloy of copper, silver and gold is found to have copper constituting ccp lattice. If silver atomsoccupy the edge centres and gold is present at body centre, the formula of the alloy is a)

AuAgCu 14 b) AuAgCu 44 c) AuAgCu 34 d) CuAgAu

24. The ionic radii of +Rb and −

I are 1.46Å and 2.16Å. The most probable type of structure exhibited byit is

a) CaCl type b) NaCl type c) ZnS type d) 2CaF type

25. Copper crystallises in a structure of face centred cubic unit cell. The atomic radius of copper is 1.28Å.What is axial length of an edge of copper ?a) 2.16Å b) 3.63Å c) 3.94Å d) 4.15Å

26. The ionic radii of −−++++ 222,,,,, OBrSrMgCsK and −2

S are 133,169,66,112,196,140 and 184 pm

respectively. Which of the following does not have fcc lattice

a) KBr b) CsBr c) MgO d) SrS

27. Gold crystallises in a face centred cubic structure. It has an atomic radius of 1.44Å. What is thedimension of the unit cell ?a) 4.09Å b) 2.05Å c) 3.5Å d) 2.92Å

28. How many number of atoms are there in a cube basic unit cell having one atom on each corner andtwo atoms on each body diagonal of the cubea) 8 b) 6 c) 4 d) 9

29. In a face centred cubic arrangement of A and B atoms, A atoms are at the corner of the unit cell and Batoms at the face centre. One of the A atom is missing from one corner in unit cells. The simplestformula of the compound is

a) 37BA b) 3AB c) 247BA d) 38/7 BA

30. A binary solid )(−+

BA has a rock salt structure. If the edge length is 400 pm and radius of cation is 75

pm, the radius of anion isa) 100 pm b) 125 pm c) 250 pm d) 325 pm

71 Quest Tutorials


Quest

31. A binary solid )(−+

BA has a zinc blende structure with −B ions constituting the lattice and +

A ionsoccupying 25% tetrahedral holes. The formula of solid is

a) AB b) BA2 c) 2AB d) 4AB

32. A solid is made of two elements X and Z. The atoms Z are in ccp arrangement while atoms X occupyall tetrahedral sites. What is the formula of the compound

a) XZ b) 2XZ c) ZX 2 d) 32ZX

33. For a solid with the following structure, the co-ordination number of the point B is

B

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

34. The co-ordination number of a metal crystallising in a hexagonal closed packed structure isa) 12 b) 4 c) 8 d) 6

35. The total number of elements of symmetry in a cubic crystal isa) 7 b) 23 c) 14 d) 10

36. For the structrue given below, the site marked as S is

S

a) Cubic void b) Tetrahedral void c) Octahedral void d) none of these

37. Bragg’s equation has no solution whena) dn 2=λ b) dn 2>λ c) dn 2<λ d) none

38. A crystal may have one or more planes of symmetry and one or more axis of symmetry, but it hasa) Two centres of symmetry b) No centre of symmetryc) One centre of symmetry d) Four centres of symmetry

39. The number of atoms in 100 gm of an fcc crystal with density 310

−= cmgmd and cell edge as 200

pm, is equal toa) 25

103× b) 24105× c) 25

101× d) 25102×

40. A solid −+BA has −

B ions arranged as below. If +A ions occupy half of the octahedral sites in the

structrue, the formula of solid is

a) AB b) 2AB c) BA2 d) 43BA

Quest Tutorials 72


Quest

41. CsBr contains bcc structure. The length of its one side is 4.3Å. The minimum distance between Cs

and Br ion will bea) 0.897Å b) 3.72Å c) 1.947Å d) none

42. An element occupying a BCC structure has 231008.12 × unit cells. The total number of atoms of the

element in these cells will be

a) 231016.24 × b) 23

1018.36 × c) 231004.6 × d) 23

1008.12 ×

43. A compound formed by the elements X and Y crystallises in cubic structure in which X atoms are at thecorners of the cube and Y atoms are at the centre of the face. The formula of the compound is

a) 2XY b) 32YX c) XY d) 3XY

44. For the structure of solid given below, if the lattice points represent +A ions and the −

B ions occupyall the tetrahedral voids, then co-ordination number of A is

a) 8 b) 6 c) 4 d) 12

45. In crystals of which of the following ionic compounds, would you expect maximum distance betweencentres of cations and anionsa) CsF b) CsI c) LiI d) LiF

46. The lustre of metal is due toa) Its high density b) Its high polishingc) Its chemical inertness d) Presence of free electrons

47. A metallic element exists as a cubic lattice. Each edge of the unit cell is 2.88 Å and density of the metal

is 7.2 gm. 3cm

− . The number of unit cells in 100 gm of metal is

a) 231082.5 × b) 23

10023.6 × c) 231052.8 × d) none of these

Answers

1. c 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. b 6. d7. a 8. b 9. c 10. c 11. a 12. b13. c 14. c 15. d 16. c 17. b 18. d19. a 20. b 21. b 22. a 23. c 24. b25. b 26. b 27. a 28. d 29. c 30. b31. c 32. c 33. d 34. a 35. b 36. c37. b 38. c 39. b 40. c 41. b 42. a43. d 44. a 46. b 46. d 47. a

73 Quest Tutorials


Quest

HYDROCARBONS

1. When benzene is oxidised in presence of 52OV at 588K, the final product is,

(a) catechol (b) maleic anhydride (c) phenol (d) anisole

2.2CH 3CH

→hv Br2

(a)2CH2CH Br

(b)3CH

2CH

Br

(c)3CH

Br

CH(d)

3CH2CH

BrBr

Br

3. Carbon chain splits into two or more parts by ozonolysis in the following except in

(a) 1,3 cyclobuta-di-ene (b) 1,2 dimetyl-1-cyclohexene

(c) benzene (d) isobutene

4. End product of the following sequence of reactions is:

+

→ → →

OH

CNCHether/MgNBS

3

3

(a)3COCH

(b)

3COCH

(c)

CN

(d)

COOH

5.

O

CHC ≡ A424 SOHHgSO →

(a)

O

O||

CHC 3− (b)

O

CHOCH2

(c)

O

COOH (d)

OH

CHOCH2

6.OH

O

]O[

HIO4 → A,A is

(a)COOH

COOH(b)

CHO

CHO(c)

COOH

CHO(d) all of these

Quest Tutorials 74


Quest

7. The appropriate reagent for the following transformation is

HO

O

HO

(a) +H)Hg(Zn (b) −OH/NHNH 22(c) Ni/H2 (d) 4NaBH

8.

Cl

,CBA 4LiAIDNBSKOH.alc → → → C is

(a)

D

(b)D

Br

(c)

D

(d)D

Br

9. .BAOH

OHZn

O

2

3

∆

→→

Θ

B is

(a)

OH

OH

(b) (c)

O

(d)

O

10. .AClPhCH2KOH.alc

2 → A is

(a) PhCHPh 2 −− (b) PhCHCHPh −=−

(c) PhCHCHPh 22 −−− (d) no reaction

11.NaOH

KMnO4 → complete oxidation. The product is

(a)OH

OH(b)

OH

OH

OH

HO(c)

O O (d)

+−NaCO2+−NaCO2

12.

MeMe

OHZn)ii(

O)i(

2

3 → products are

(a)CHO| CHO

(b)CHO| CHO

+

O

H

(c)CHO| CHO

+

O

O

(d)CHO| CHO

+

O

H

O

+

O

O

75 Quest Tutorials


Quest

13. cis 2-butane3NH.liq

Na→ product is

(a) meso compound (b) d/l pair

(c) meso and racemic mixture both (d) none of these

14.∆

−

→

,OH

KMnO4

A, so A is

(a)

OHHO

(b)CH

HCO2 HCO2

(c)

HCO2

(d)CH

CHOCHO

15. C = CD

H

D

3CMe

Z,ZOH

MeMgCl)ii(

HPhCO)i( 33 → →

+

is

(a) C C—D

HD

3CMe

MeOH(b) C C—

D

H

D

3CMe3CMe

H (c) C C—H3CMe3CMe

HH H

(d) none

16. ;ACHOCCCHCHOHO 23

→−≡−= product A consist of

(a)HCO2

HCO |2

HCO

2

2+ (b)

CHO

HCO |2

HCO

2

2+

(c)HCO2

HCO |2CHO

2

+ (d)CHO

HCO |2CHO

2

+

17. The reaction between .CHCHCHHCC0

HF3266

°

→−=+ A is major product

(a) 356 CHCHCHHC −=− (b)

3CH

3CH

CHHC 56 −

(c) 2256 CHCHCHHC =−− (d)2CH

3CHCHC 56 −

18.

O

B,BAPClexcess

KNH5

2 →→+ is

(a) (b) (c) (d) none of these

Quest Tutorials 76


Quest

19. Which Xylene is most easily sulfonated ?

(a) ortho (b) meta

(c) para (d) all at the same rate

20. CBA 234

22

62 CHPPhHCrO

OH

THFHB → → →

= . C is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

21. 33 CHCCCH −=− .HCCCHCHA 23H

Hg

H

Hg 22

−≡−− ← →+

+

+

+

A is

(a) butanal (b) 2-butanone (c) acetic acid (d) formic acid

22.

Me

X,X3lClAnhydrousA

ClMe →

−

is the ultimate product at the equilibrium. So X is

(a) m-Xylene (b) o-Xylene (c) p-Xylene (d) none

23. Ozonolysis of compound A gives one mole glycol. Compound A is

(a) 66HC (b) 42HC (c) 22HC (d) 63HC

24. ;ACHCHCH22OH

HCl23 →=− A is

(a)

Cl |

CHCHCH 33 −− (b) ClCHCHCH 223 −−

(c) 23 CHCHCH| | OH OH

−− (d) none

25. How many monochloro derivatives of 2-methoxy propane are possible ?

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1

26.

3CH

→.S.B.N major product is

(a)

Me

Br

Br

(b)

Me

Br

(c)BrCH2

(d)Me Br

27. Hydroboration-oxidation and acid-catalyze hydration of which of the following will not yield

the same product ?

77 Quest Tutorials


Quest

(a) (b)

(c) 22 CHCH = (d) 33 CHCHCHCH −=−

28. Bromine addition to olefin is supposed to be anti attack. Which compound would you choose

to prove this ?

(a) 22 CHCH = (b) 23 CHCHCH =

(c)

3

23

CH |

CHCCH =− (d) 33 CHCHCHCH −= (cis or trans)

29. .DCBAHClCHNaNaOH.aqHBr

423

→→ → → D is

(a) butane (b) dimethyl ether

(c) propane (d) ethyl methyl ether

30. pentyne1−

424 SOHHgSO

−OH,OHTHF.BH 223

X

Y

X and Y can be distinguished by :

(a) silver-mirror test (b) iodoform test (c) both (d) none

31. CHCCHCH 23 ≡−−A

B33 CHCCCH −≡− A and B are:

(a) alcoholic KOH and 2NaNH (b) 2NaNH and alcoholic KOH

(c) 2NaNH and Lindlar (d) Lindlar and 2NaNH

32. .ACHCHCClOHCl

2322 →=

+ A is

(a)

OH |

ClCHCHCCl 23 − (b)

Cl |

OHCHCHCCl 23 −

(c)

Cl Cl | | CHCHCCl 23 − (d)

OH OH | | CHCHCCl 23 −

33. CMgCl)CH( 33 on reaction with OD2 produces:

(a) CD)CH( 33 (b) COD)CH( 33 (c) CD)CD( 33 (d) COD)CD( 33

34. The reaction of 1-bromo-3-chlorocyclobutane with metallic sodium in dioxane gives :

(a) ClCl (b) ClBr

(c) BrBr (d)

Quest Tutorials 78


Quest

35. AC25

HClAlCl3

°

− → A is:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

36. )A(HC 126 has chirality but on hydrogenation A is converted into )B(HC 146 in which chirality

disappears. Hence A is :

(a) 3-methyl-1-pentene (b) 2-methyl-2-pentene

(c) 2,3-dimethyl-2-butene (d) 3,3-dimethyl-1-butene

37. ClHC 115 by Wurtz reaction forms 2, 2, 5, 5-tetramethyl hexane as the main product. Hence

ClHC 115 is :

(a) 2, 2-dimethyl-1-chloropropane (b) 2-methyl-1-chlorobutane

(c) both true (d) none of these

38. 3CH

OH

A3POCl → (major) A is:

(a) 3CH (b) 3CH (c) 3CH (d) 2CH

39.

BrBr | |

CHCHCHCH 33 acetone

NaI → A. A is:

(a)IBr | |

CHCHCHCH 33(b) 33 CHCHCHCH = (c) 33 CCHCCH ≡ (d) no reaction

40. ACClCHCHRperoxide

42 →+=− . A is

(a)

Cl |

CClRCHCH 32 (b)

3

2

CCl |

ClRCHCH (c) both are correct (d) none of these

ANSWERS

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b)

7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (d)

13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (c)

19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (a)

25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (c)

31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (a)

37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (a)

79 Quest Tutorials


Quest

NOMENCLATURE & ISOMERISM

1. The isomerism exhibited between methyl propyl acetylene and diethyl acetylene is

(a) positional isomerism (b) functional isomerism

(c) metamerism (d) chain isomerism

2. Which will show geometrical isomerism

(a) (b) OHNNHO −=− (c) both (d) none

3. Which of the following compounds has maximum enol percentage

(a)O

(b)

O

O

(c)O O

(d)OO

2NH

4. Which of the group is responsible for metamerism

(a) (b) −− C|| O

(c) (d) all of these

5. Which has lowest percentage of enol form ?

(a)O O

(b)O O

(c) O O (d)

O

O||

||

6. Which of the followings is/are optically active ?

(a)H

H

ClCl

(b)H

HCl Cl (c) (d)

2NH

Cl

7. How many primary amines are possible for the formula NHC 114 ?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 3

8. Which of the following substrate autoracemises

(a) lactic acid (b) 2 butyl phenyl ketone

(c) dimethyl bromo succinate (d) tartaric acid

9. Number of aromatic isomers of 129HC are

(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9

10. HCN and HNC are ..... isomers :

(a) functional (b) tautomers (c) both (d) can’t be predicted

Quest Tutorials 80


Quest

11. 3223 CHOCHCCHCCH|| ||

O O

−−−−D

+

A ( +D is catalyst). A is is

(a) 523 HOCCCHCCH|| | O OH

−−==− (b) 523 HOCCCHCCH| ||

OH O

−==−−

(c) 523 HOCCCHCCH|| | O OD

−−==− (d) formation of A is not possible

12. Functional isomers of OHCCH|| O

3 −− are :

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

13. ClHC 46 (dichlorobenzene) →+Fe

2Cl 336 ClHC (trichlorobenzene)

(X) (Y)

Only one structural isomer of Y is formed. Hence (X) is :

(a) o-isomer (b) p-isomer (c) m-isomer (d) none

14. is named as (IUPAC) :

(a) vinyl acetylene (b) 1-butene-3-yne (c) 1-butyne-3-ene (d) b,c true

15.

OO

O

IUPAC name is :

(a) 2, 4 butan-di-one (b) ethoxy ethanone

(c) ethanoic anhydride (d) acetic anhydride

16. Me

Et

OH

H

* has chiral centre (*). It is :

(a) R (b) S (c) both (d) none

17. Number of optically active isomers of tartaric acid

CH(OH)COOH|

COOH)OH(CH

is

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

18. HCCHO|| ||

O O

−−− will be named as (IUPAC) :

(a) 2-keto ethanoic acid (b) formyl methanoic acid

(c) glyoxalic acid (d) none is correct

19. Isopropyl chloride + KCN → A BOH3 →

+

. IUPAC names of A and B are :

(a) isopropyl cyanide, isobutyric acid

(b) 2-methyl-1-propanonitrile, 2-methyl propanoic acid

(c) both correct (d) none of these

81 Quest Tutorials


Quest

20. Most stable form of cyclohexane is :

(a) boat (b) chair (c) skew (d) eclipsed

21.

BrCCl ||

ClCCH3

−−

−− is :

(a) trans (b) Z (c) both correct (d) none of these

22.

3CH

CH3

3CH

| |H

H

H

3CH

CH3

| |

H

H

H

CH3

are :

(a) enantiomers (b) diastereomers (c) geometrical isomers(d) same structure

23. will be named as (IUPAC) :

(a) bicyclo (3, 1, 1) cycloheptane (b) bicyclo (4, 2, 2) cycloheptane

(c) bicyclo (3, 2, 1) cycloheptane (d) none is correct

24. The compound, whose stereo-chemical formula is written below, exhibits x geometrical iso-

mers and y optical isomers.

3CH

C = CH

H

H |

CHCCHCH| OH

322 −−−

The values of x and y are :

(a) 4 and 4 (b) 2 and 2 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 4 and 2

25. The number of optically active isomers possible for

OH OH OH | | |

CHCHCHCHCH 33 −−−−

is :

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8

26. The following compound can exhibit :

COOH3CH

3CH

C = C HH

C

3CH

(a) geometrical isomerism (b) geometrical and optical isomerism

(c) optical isomerism (d) tautomerism

27.

H |

CHCHCCH| CHO

323 −− chiral carbon has configuration :

(a) R (b) S (c) both true (d) none of these

Quest Tutorials 82


Quest

28. Number of chiral carbon atoms in

3CHCl is :

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1

29. Which will form geometrical isomers ?

(a)Cl

Cl(b) NOHCHCH3 = (c) (d) all

30. Geometrical isomerism is possible in :

(a) acetone-oxime (b) isobutene

(c) acetophenone-oxime (d) benzophenone-oxime

31. Tautomerism is not shown by :

(a) CNCOCHCH 23 (b) HCN (c) NOHCHCH3 = (d) CNCH3

32. The optically active tartaric acid is named as D-(+)-tartaric acid because it has a positive:

(a) optical rotation and is derived from D-glucose

(b) pH in organic solvent

(c) optical rotation and is derived from D-(+)-glyceral dehyde

(d) optical rotation only when substituted by deuterium

33. How many optically active stereoisomers are possible for butane-2,3-diol:

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

34. The number of possible enantiomeric pairs that can be produced during monochlorination of

2-methyl butane is:

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1

35. During debromination of meso dibromo butane, the major compound formed is:

(a) n-butane (b) 1-butene (c) trans-2-butene (d) cis-2-butene

ANSWERS

1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (d)

7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (b)

13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (a)

19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (b)

25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (c)

31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (c)

83 Quest Tutorials


Quest

REACTION MECHANISM

1. Which of the following is not a substrate for 1SN ?

(a) ClCHCHCH 22 −= (b) ClCH3

(c) ClC)CH( 33 − (d) ClCHC)CH( 233 −

2. The most basic compound among the following is

(a) 2-phenyl ethyl amine(b) aniline (c) 2,4-dinitroaniline (d) benzamide

3. Which of the following is the strongest acid ?

(a) CHHC ≡ (b) 66HC (c) 62HC (d) OHCH3

4. Which of the following species is both nucleophilic and electrophilic ?

(a) OH2 (b) CNCH3 (c) 4CH (d) OHCH3

5. Arrange the following in the decreasing order of reactivity towards bromination

(i) p-methyl benzene sulphonic acid (ii) p-methyl aniline

(iii) phenol (iv) toluene

(a) (i),(ii),(iii),(iv) (b) (i),(iv),(iii),(ii) (c) (iv),(iii),(ii), (i) (d) (ii),(iii),(iv),(i)

6. Carbon atoms in 42 )CN(C are :

(a) sp - hybridised (b) 2sp - hybridised

(c) sp and 2sp hybridised (d) sp, 2sp and 3sp hybridised

7. List the following alkyl halides in decreasing order of 2SN reactivity

CH3 Cl

A

ClCH2

B

C

BrCH2

3CHCH3

Cl

D

3CHCH3

ClE

(a) C > B > E > D > A (b) A > B > C > E > D

(c) C > E > B > D > A (d) A > B > D > E > C

8. Which of the following is the strongest acid ?

(a)OH

2NO(b)

OH

Cl

(c)

OH

2NO

(d)

OH

2NO

9. The order of reactivity of halogens in substitution reaction in polar protic solvent is

(a) F > Cl > Br > I (b) I > Br > Cl > F (c) F > Br > Cl > I (d) F > Cl = Br > I

Quest Tutorials 84


Quest

10. In

3CH|N

the N-atom involves the hybridisation

(a) sp (b) 2sp (c) 3sp (d) 2dsp

11. m-nitro chloro benzene (I) 2, 4 dinitro chloro benzene (II) and p-nitro chloro benzene (III).

Shows the order of reactivity with ONaHC 52

(a) I > II > III (b) II = III > I (c) III > I > II (d) II > III > I

12. The correct order of reactivity towards nucleophilic substitution for the following compounds

RCOCI, RCOOR, 2RCONH O)RCO( 2 is

I II III IV

(a) I > IV > II > III (b) I > II > III > IV (c) III > II > IV > I (d) IV > III > II > I

13. The structure of glycine in a solution of pH = 10, is

(a) COOHCHNH 22 −− (b) −−− COOCHNH 22

(c) COOHCHNH 23 −−+ (d) −

+

−− COOCHHN 23

14. The main product of the reaction

3

3

3

CH |

ClCCH| CH

−− →

KOH.aq

(a) 33 CHCHCHCH = (b)

3

3

CH |

CHOHCCH = (c)

3

23

CH |

CHCCH = (d) COH)CH( 23

15. Which is having maximum basic character

(a)

H|N

(b) NH

(c) 2NH (d) NH

16. Leaving tendency of the following group in decreasing order

,Cl− 3CH −3SO −OH 2NO −

3SO

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(a) IV>II>I>III (b) I>II>III>IV (c) II>IV>I>III (d) I>IV>II>III

85 Quest Tutorials


Quest

17. OH →

+H

(a) (b) (c) (d) no reaction

18. Which of the following has the most acidic hydrogen ?

(a) 3-hexanone (b) 2,4-hexanedione

(c) 2,5-hexanedione (d) 2,3-hexanedione

19. Which of the following has the highest nucleophilicity

(a) −F (b) −OH (c) −

3CH (d) −2NH

20. Which one of the following will most readly be dehydrated in acidic condition ?

(a) ||O

|OH

(b) |OH

(c)

|OH

|OH

(d)||O

|OH

21.3CH

t-Bu →

+2NO

(a)

3CH

2NOt-Bu(b)

3CH

2NOt-Bu (c)

3CH

2NO(d) no reaction

22.

OH |

CHCHCHCHCH 3223 − HBr

H →

+

(A) major. A is

(a) BrCHCHCHCHCH 22223 (b)

Br | CHCHCHCHCH 3223

(c)

Br |

CHCHCHCHCH 3223(d) no reaction

23. The strongest nucleophile among the following is

(a) −F (b) −Cl (c)

−Br (d) −I

Quest Tutorials 86


Quest

24.OHCH2

AH→

+

(major). A is

(a)2CH

(b)3CH

(c)3CH

(d)3CH

25.||O

Br

Ph

→base A (major) A is

(a)O

Ph(b)

||O

Ph (c) ||O

Ph(d)

OH

Ph

Br|CH2

26. Which one of the following is a better leaving group ?

(a) −Cl (b) −

OH (c) −2NH (d) −

23COCH

27. Dichloro carbene is a (n)

(a) nucleophile (b) electrophille (c) alkene (d) alkyne

28. Which carbanion is most stable

(a) −CMe3 (b) −CPh3 (c) 3CH− (d) 2HCPh

29. O ,AOH3 →

+

A is

(a) 3CH

OH

OH

(b) 3CH

OHCH2

OH

(c)

3CH

OHCH2

(d)

3CH

OH

3CH

30. Which of the following aryl halide will undergo nucleophilic substitution faster under similar

conditions.

(a) o-nitrochlorobenzene (b) o-methoxychlorobenzene

(c) 1,2 dichlorobenzene (d) 2,4dinitrochlorobenzene

31. The enol percentage is maximum for

(a) HCCH|| O

3 −− (b)323 CHCCHCCH

|| || O O

−−−−

(c) O O (d) O O

87 Quest Tutorials


Quest

32. Rate of chlorination is maximum for

(a)

2CHMe

(b)

2MeCH

(c)

3CH

(d)

2CMe

33.

Me

OHCH2 − ∆

→

+H

A; A is

(a) 2CH(b) 2CH

(c)Me

(d)Me

Me

34. What are the hybridizations of the carbon atoms in the ‘alene’ system like

C = C = C1 2 3

(a) 222 spspsp −− (b) spspsp 2−− (c) 22 spspsp −− (d) none

35. Dehydrohalogenation in alcoholic KOH passes through the mechanism

(a) 1E (b) 2E (c) 1.B.CE (d) IE

36. Which of the following amines has greater ability of complex formation with 33)CH(B ?

(a) N)CH( 33 (b) NH)CH( 23 (c) 23NHCH (d) none of these

37. Guanidine, ,)NH(CHN 22= is a strong base. Which nitrogen will be protonated

(a) amino nitrogen (b) imino nitrogen (c) both nitrogen atoms(d) none of these

38. Which of the following is most stable carbocation ?

(a) isopropyl cation (b) tropylium cation

(c) secondary butyl cation (d) tertiary butyl cation

39.

3

23

CH |

AHBrCHCHCHCH →+=−− . A (predominant) is :

(a)

Br CH | |

CHCHCHCH

3

33 −−− (b)

CH |

BrCHCHCHCH

3

223 −−−

(c)

CH |

CHCHCCH| Br

3

323 −−− (d) none of these

40. Which reacts fastest with conc. HCl ?

(a) OHCHCH 22 (b)

OH|

CHCH 3−

(c)

3

3

3

CH |

OHCCH| CH

−− (d) OHCHCHCH 22 −=

Quest Tutorials 88


Quest

ANSWERS

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (c)

7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (a)

13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b)

19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (b)

25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (d)

31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (b)

37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (b) 41. (a) 42. (b)

43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (c)

41. Dehydration of the following in increasing order is

OH OH OH OH

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(a) I < II < III < IV (b) II < III < IV < I (c) I < III < IV < II (d) I < IV < II = III

42. 2 BA 242 HPtSOH.conc → → . A and B are :

(a) , (b) ,

(c) , (d) none

43. →−≡ 424 SOHHgSOCOOHCCH product . Product is :

(a)

O ||

COOHCCH3 −− (b) COOHCHOHC 2 −−

(c)

OH |

COOHCCH2 −= (d) COOHCHCHOH −=−

44. Electrophile ⊕2NO attacks the following :

3CCl 2NO ⊕3NH

ΘO

I II II IV

In which cases ⊕2NO will be at meta-position:

(a) II and IV (b) I, II and III (c) II and III only (d) I only

45. O C||O

→++

2NO

Product of this reaction by single ES (reaction):

(a)2NO

O C||O

(b)

2NO

O C||O

(c)O C

||O

NO2(d)

2NOO C||O

89 Quest Tutorials


Quest

ALKYL & ARYL HALIDES

1. Which one of the following compounds on treatment with 4LiAlH will give a product that

will give a positive iodoform test:

(a) CHOCHCH 23 (b) 323 COOCHCHCH

(c) 3223 CHOCHCHCH (d) 33COCHCH

2. ?SOClOHRPyridine

2alcohol 1

→+−°

(a) the reaction does not take place

(b) the reaction takes place with inversion of configuration

(c) the reaction takes place to give a racemic mixture of alkyl halides

(d) the reaction takes place with retention of configuration

3. The alcohol that responds to Iodoform test is

(a) n-propanol (b) n-butanol (c) methanol (d) ethanol

4. End product of the following sequence of reaction is

O||

CHC 3−

O

?

.3H.2

,NaOHI.1 2

∆

∆+

+

→

(a) yellow ppt. of 3CHI and

O

COOH(b) yellow ppt. of 3CHI and

O

CHO

(c) yellow ppt. of 3CHI and O

(d) yellow ppt. of 3CHI and COOHCOOH

5.

Br |

CHCHCHCHCHCH 2223 =−−−− →KOH alcoholic A (predominant). A is :

(a) 223 CHCHCHCHCHCH =−=−− (b) 223 CHCHCHCHCHCH =−−=−

(c) 2222 CHCHCHCHCHCH =−−−= (d) CHCCHCHCHCH 2223 ≡−−−−

6. ClCHCH 23 by Wurtz reaction forms:

(a) ethane, ethene, butane (b) ethene, butane (c) only butane

(d) only ethane

7. Order of hydrolysis of the following in increasing order is:

Br , Br , Br , Br.C)CH( 33

I II III IV

(a) I<II<III<IV (b) I<IV<II<III (c) IV<III<II<I (d) I<II<IV<III

Quest Tutorials 90


Quest

8. Which of the following can not undergo nucleophilic substitution under ordinary condition:

(a) allyl chloride (b) benzyl chloride (c) n-propyl chloride (d) vinyl chloride

9. The most suitable reagent for producing dichlorocarbene from chloroform is:

(a) sodium acetate (b) potassium-t-butoxide(c) triethyl amine (d) pyridine

10. +− 223 NHCHCH NCCHCHOHCHCl 233 −−→+− Intermediates of this reaction are:

(a) −3CCl: (b) 2CCl: (c) both (d) none

11. )gas(ABrCHOHC)CH(

ether

Mg3

33 → →−−

A is:

(a) 333 CHOC)CH( −− (b) 4CH (c) BrOC)CH( 33 −− (d) CH)CH( 33

12. BAAgCNClR.redn

→→+−

(a) 22NHRCH,RCN (b) 3RNHCH,RNC

(c) 3RNHCH,RCN (d) 22NHRCH,RNC

13. 3CHHH

BrAOH

2SN →+

− . A is

(a) 3CH

HH

HO(b)

H

H

HO3CH

(c) both (d) none

14. BrCH3 can be prepared by :

(a) →+∆

23 BrCOOAgCH (b) →+ NBSCH 4

(c) both (d) none

15. 233 CHCH.C)CH( =

2323

333II

)CH(CC)(CHCl|I

CH.CH.C)CH(

=

←

In this reaction :

(a) 1 is 1E , II is 2E (b) I is 2E , II is 1E (c) both 1E (d) both 2E

16.H

HBr

3CH

56HC

56HC

A2E

KOH.alcoholic → . A is:

(a)

H

3CH

56HC

56HC

C ||C (b)

H

3CH

56HC

56HC

C ||C (c)

H

56HC 56HC

C ||C

3CH

(d) none is correct

91 Quest Tutorials


Quest

17.

∆

+

→

.3OH.2

KCN.1

A263

3

ClHC

3

3

CH | CHCOOHCH − .

Hence A is :

(a) 1, 1 dichloro propane (b) 1, 2 dichloro propane

(c) 2, 2 dichloro propane (d) 1, 3 dichloro propane

18.

3

523

3

CH |

ONaHCClCCH| CH

+−− → Major product of this reaction is:

(a)

3

523

3

CH |

HOCCCH| CH

−− (b)

3

23

CH |

CHCCH =−

(c)

3

5223

CH |

HOCCHCHCH −− (d) none is correct

19. Increasing rate of dehydrohalogenation is:

(a) RF<RCl<RBr<RI (b) RI<RBr<RCl<RF

(c) RCl<RF<RBr<RI (d) RF<RI<RCl<RBr

20. ACHOH

Br2

2

2 → . A is:

(a)BrCH2

OH(b)

Br

OHCH2

(c)Br

BrCH2 (d)OHCH2

OH

21. Which of the following will give haloform test ?

(a)33 CClCCH

|| O

−− (b)

OH |

ICHCCH 23 −− (c)

O ||

ClCHCCH 23 −− (d) all

22. For the reaction,

XHCHXOHHC 52ZnX

522 →+

The decreasing order of reactivity of halogen acids is:

(a) HI>HCl>HBr (b) HI>HBr>HCl (c) HCl>HBr>HI (d) HBr>HI>HCl

23. An organic halide with formula BrHC 136 on heating with alc. KOH gives two isomeric

alkenes (A) and (B) with formula 126HC . On reductive ozonolysis of mixture (A) and (B), the

following compounds are obtained:

CHOCHCH,CHOCH,COCHCH 23333 and CHCHO)CH( 23

Quest Tutorials 92


Quest

The organic halide is:

(a) 2-bromohexane (b) 3-bromo-2-methylpentane

(c) 2,2-dimethyl-1-bromohexane (d) none of these

24. Which of the following alkyl halides is hydrolysed by 2NS mechanism :

(a) BrCHCHCH 22 = (b) CBr)CH( 33 (c) BrCH3 (d) none of these

25. When carbon tetrachloride is reduced with Zn and 42SOH in alcoholic solution, it forms:

(a) ClCH3 (b) 3CHCl (c) ClHC 52 (d) 2Cl

26. When pure chloroform is shaken with silver nitrate solution, we get:

(a) no precipitate (b) a yellow ppt. of AgI

(c) a white ppt. of AgCl (d) acetylene is liberated

27. When ethyl chloride is heated with AgCN, the main product is:

(a) ethyl cyanide (b) ethyl isocyanide (c) ethyl amine (d) ethyl nitrate

28. When ethyl alcohol is heated with paste of bleaching powder, we get a compound in which the

function of bleaching powder is:

(a) as an oxidising agent (b) as a chlorinating agent

(c) as a hydrolysing agent

(d) as chlorinating, oxidising and hydrolysing agent

29. When ethyl bromide is treated with dry silver oxide, we get:

(a) diethyl ether (b) ethanol (c) ethane (d) ethene

30. Which is detected by carbylamine test:

(a) 22NCONHH (b) 23CONHCH (c) 252 NHHC (d) all of these

31. Alkyl halide when with alcoholic solution of potassium sulphide, it forms

(a) thio-alcohol (b) thio-ether (c) thio-acid (d) alkane

32. The antiseptic action of 3CHI is due to:

(a) iodoform itself (b) libratio of free iodine

(c) partially due to iodine and partially due to 3CHI itself (d) none of these

33. The reaction conditions leading to the best yield of ClHC 52 are:

(a) 62HC (excess)+ →light UV

2Cl (b) →+.temp Room,Dark

262 ClHC

(c) →+light UV

262 )excess(ClHC (d) →+light UV

262 ClHC

34. 1-Bromopropane and 2-bromopropane on treatment with sodium in presence of ether gives:

(a) n-hexane (b) 2,3-dimethylbutane (c) 2-methylpentane

(d) a mixture of all these different alkanes

35. Compound 284 ClHC (A) on hydrolysis gives a compound )B(OHC 84 which reacts with hy-

droxylamine and does not give any test with tollen’s reagent. What are (A) and (B).

(a) 1,1-dichlorobutane and butanal (b) 2,2-dichlorobutane and butanal

(c) 1,1-dichlorobutane and butan-2-one (d) 2,2-dichlorobutane and butan-2-one

36. Which one of the following compounds is stable:

(a) 23 )OH(CHCH (b) 223 )OH(CH)CH( (c) 23 )OH(CHCCl (d) none of these

93 Quest Tutorials


Quest

37. Which of the following compounds will give a yellow precipitate with 2I and alkali:

(a) 33 CHCHOHCH −− (b) ClCCH|| O

3 −−

(c) 23 NHCCH|| O

−− (d)523 HOCCCH

|| O

−−

38. Treatment of 3HN with excess of ethyl chloride gives:

(a) diethylamine (b) ethane

(c) tetraethyl ammonium chloride (d) methylamine

39. Isobutyl magnesium bromide with dry ether and absolute alcohol gives:

(a) OHCHCH)CH( 223 and MgBrCHCH 23 (b) 3223 CHCHCH)CH( and Mg(OH)Br

(c) CH)CH( 33 and OMgBrCHCH 23

(d) 2233 CHCH,CH)CH( = and Mg(OH)Br

40. Which of the following will react with water:

(a) 3CHCl (b) CCHOCl3

(c) 4CCl (d) ClCHClCH 22 ⋅

ANSWERS

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (a)

7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (b)

13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (b)

19. (a) 20. (a) 21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (c)

25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (c)

31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (c)

37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (b)

Quest Tutorials 94


Quest

ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS & ETHERS

1.OH

.X42

223

SOH

OHCHCHCH → Here X is

(a)

OH

322 CHCHCH(b)

OH

322 CHCHCH

(c)322 CHCHCHO −

(d)

OH

CH3CH

3CH

2. The major product obtained when 3-phenyl-1,2-propane-diol is heated with 42SOH is

(a) 3256 COCHCHHC − (b) 2256 CHCHCHHC =−−

(c) 3256 CHCHCHHC =−− (d) 2256 CHCHCHHC −−−

O

3. Chromic anhydride in 42SOH is turned blue by

(a) 1° alcohol (b) OH (c) both (d) none

4. The gas liberated when ethanol is reacted with methyl magnesium bromide is

(a) hydrogen (b) ethane (c) bromine (d) methane

5.42SOH

Ag2 MePh)Br(C)OH(CPh →−

+

(a)

O ||

CBrPhCPh 2−− (b)

O ||

CMePhCPh 2−− (c)

O ||

MeCCPh3 −− (d) none of these

6. Which is most reactive towards aq.KOH

(a) ClCHCHPh 22− (b) Cl Me (c) ClCCHPh|| O

2 −−− (d)Me

Br

7. Conversion of methyl cyclopentene to trans 2-methyl-1-cyclopentanol can be conveniently

achieved by

(a) OHNaOH 2− (b) hydroboration-oxidation

(c) hydroboration - hydrolysis (d) oxymercuration - demercuration

8. The relative order of esterification of alcohols is

(a) 000321 << (b) 000

321 >> (c) 000231 >> (d) 000

231 <<

95 Quest Tutorials


Quest

9. The compound that react fastest with Lucas reagent at room temperature is

(a) 1-butanol (b) 2-butanol

(c) 2-methyl-1-propanol (d) benzyl alcohol

10. Di-n propyl ether and diallyl ether can be distinguished by

(a) acetic acid (b) Na metal (c) cold dil 4KMnO (d) 5PCl

11. On reaction with hot conc. 42SOH which one of the following compounds loses a molecule of

water:

(a) 33COCHCH (b) COOHCH3 (c) 33OCHCH (d) OHCHCH 23

12. A compound obtained by heating glycerol with conc. 42SOH or 4KHSO or 52OP is:

(a) glyceric acid (b) allyl alcohol

(c) acrolein (d) glycerol hydrogen sulphate

13. Propene, 23 CHCHCH =− can be converted into 1-propanol. Which of the reagents among

the following is ideal to affect the conversion:

(a) alkaline 4KMnO (b) 62HB and alkaline 22OH

(c) ZnO3 (d) 224 ClCHOsO

14. Which of the following can work as dehydrating agent for alcohols:

(a) 42SOH (b) 32OAl (c) 43POH (d) all

15. A compound (X) with molecular formula OHC 83 can be oxidised to (Y) with a molecular

formula )X.(OHC 263 is most likely:

(a) primary alcohol (b) secondary alcohol (c) aldehyde (d) ketone

16. Identify (Z) in the series,

)Z()Y()X(OHHCKOH.Alc

of ExcessBr

C170

SOH.Conc73

242 → → →°

(a)

22

23

NH NH | | CHCHCH −− (b)

OH OH | | CHCHCH 23 −− (c) CHCCH3 ≡− (d)

OH |

CHCCH 23 −−

17. Oxalic acid is formed when glycol is treated with:

(a) 42SOH (b) 43POH (c) HCl (d) 3HNO

18. The compound formed by reaction of ethylene glycol and periodic acid )HIO( 4 is :

(a) acetic acid (b) formic acid (c) formaldehyde (d) glyoxal

19. When 3,3-dimethyl-2-butanol is heated with conc. 42SOH the major product obtained is:

(a) 2, 3-dimethyl-1-butene (b) 3,3-dimethyl-1-butene

(c) 2,3-dimethyl-2-butene

(d) cis and trans isomers of 2,3-dimethyl-2-butene

Quest Tutorials 96


Quest

20. In the following reaction, what is X,

→32SONa

X Glycerol + acetaldehyde + 2CO

(a) ethyl alcohol (b) glucose (c) glycol (d) allyl alcohol

21. When glycerol is treated with phosphorus tri-iodide, the main product obtained is:

(a) glyceryl tri-iodide (b) propene (c) allyl iodide (d) isopropyl iodide

22. Glycol on treatment with 3PI gives mainly:

(a) ethylene (b) ethylene iodide (c) ethyl iodide (d) ethane

23. Which of the following are the starting materials for the Grignard’s synthesis of tert. butyl

alcohol:

(a) 333 COCHCHMgICH + (b) 333 CHOHCHCHMgICH +

(c) 3323 COCHCHMgBrCHCH + (d) CHOCHMgBrCHCH 323 +

24. An alcohol on oxidation is found to give COOHCH3 and COOHCHCH 23 . The structure of

the alcohol is:

(a) OHCHCHCH 223 (b) 323 CH)OH(CHCHCH

(c) 3223 CHCHCH)OH(CHCH (d) 3223 CHCH)OH(C)CH(

25. A compound with molecular formula 3104 OHC is converted by the action of acetyl chloride

to a compound with molecular weight 190. The original compound has:

(a) one–OH group (b) two –OH groups (c) three –OH groups (d) no –OH group

26. In reaction sequence,

→ →=RHOCl

22 MCHCH

OHCH|

OHCH

2

2

molecule M and reagent R, respectively are:

(a) ClCHCH 23 and NaOH (b) OHCHCH 23 and 42SOH

(c) ClCH2 – OHCH2 and aq. 3NaHCO (d) 33 CHCH − and heat

27. 3CH

cold

4KMnO alkalineA

3CrO

AcOH B

A and B are:

(a) OH3CH

OH, OH

3CH

O(b) OH

3CH

OH,

3CH

OO

(c) OH3CH

OH,

3CH

OH(d) no formation of A and B

97 Quest Tutorials


Quest

28.

OH CH | |

CHCH—CCH| CH

3

33

3

−− nt)(predominaAHBr . A is:

(a) 333 CHCHC)CH(| Br

−− (b) 2323 )CH(CHC)CH(| Br

−

(c) both (d) none is correct

29. Which of the following compounds give most stable carbonium ion on dehydration ?

(a)

3

3

3

CH |

OHCCH| CH

−− (b)

3

223

CH |

OHCHCHCHCH −−

(c)

OH |

CHCHCHCH 323 −−− (d) OHCHCHCHCH 2223

30. ← 4NaBHB ACHOCHCH

PtH2 →−= . A and B are:

(a) ,CHOCHCH 22 OHCHCHCH 2−=

(b) OHCHCHCH 222 −− , OHCHCHCH 22 −=

(c) OHCHCHCH 22 −= (d) OHCHCHCH 222 in both cases

31. B ONaCH

3

3

OHCH23

3

CHCCH|CH

−−

O

AH

OH 182

+

→ A and B are:

(a)

OH OH | | CH—CCH

| CH

18

23

3

−

3

23

3

OCH OH | | CH—CCH

| CH

−

(c)

OHOH | | CH—CCH

| CH

18

23

3

−

3

23

3

OCH OH | | CH—CCH

| CH

−

(d) both are correct (d) none is correct

32. 3ether

332

HI.concCHOC)CH()mix(B −− ←

:)mix(A1

HI anhydrous →

Quest Tutorials 98


Quest

(a) A and B are identical mixture of ICH3 and OHC)CH( 33 −

(b) A and B are identical mixture of OHCH3 and IC)CH( 33 −

(c) A is a mixture of ICH3 and OHC)CH( 33 − , B is a mixture of OHCH3 and IC)CH( 33 −

(d) none

33. Allyl alcohol is obtained when glycerol reacts with the following at 260°C:

(a) formic acid (b) oxalic acid (c) both (d) none

34. .ACO)OHC(OH

MgBrCH3252

3

3

+

→ A is:

(a) CHOH)OHC( 252 (b) COH)(CH 33 (c) COH)HC(| CH

252

3

(d) CHOH)(CH 23

35. Oxalic acid + →AOO

O

O

hence A B42SOH.conc → . B is:

(a)

O

O(b)

O

O

O (c)

OH OH| | CHOCH 22 −− (d) none

36.

A

)moltwo(MgBrCH3

3

3

CH|CHCOOHCH −

+OH3

+OH3

B is

(a) 323 CHCOCH)CH( (b)

OH |

)CH(CHC)CH( 2323

(c) 2323 )CH(CHCOCH)CH( (d)

OH |

)CH(CHCHCH)CH( 2323

37. Dehydration of the alcohols

OH OH OHOH

I II III IV

will be in order:

(a) III > II > IV > I (b) I > II > III > IV (c) IV > II > III > I (d) II > IV > I > III

38. Dehydration of alcohols

OH OH OH OH

I II III IV

(a) I<II<III<IV (b) I>II>III>IV (c) III<II<I<IV (d) II<III<IV<I

99 Quest Tutorials


Quest

39. BAHIOCH3 +→+ A and B are:

(a) I, OHCH3 (b) OH, ICH3 (c) , ICH3 (d) I, 4CH

40. OHCHCHCHABrMgR 223OH3 →+−−

+

R and A are:

(a) −23CHCH and HCHO (b) 3CH –and 2CH 2CH

O

(c) both are correct (d) none is correct

ANSWERS

1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (c)

7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (c)

13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (c)

19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (c)

25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (b)

31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (b)

37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (c)

Quest Tutorials 100


Quest

ALDEHYDES & KETONES

1. .ACHOCHCH,NaOH

23 →∆ A is

(a) CHOCHCHCHCHCH 223 = (b) CHOCCHCHCH| CH

23

3

−=

(c)

OH |

CHOCHCHCHCHCH 2223 − (d)

OH |

CHOCHCHCHCH| CH

23

3

−−−−

2.

O OH || |

CHCCHCH 33 −−− . The compound A

(a) can be oxidised by Tollen’s Reagent (b) cannot be oxidised by Tollen’s reagent

(c) can only be oxidised by 3CrO (d) none

3. Cinnamic acid can be produced by which of the following reactions,

(a) →+ −OHCHOHC 56

(b) →+O)COCH(

35623COONaCHCHOHC

(c)agentReTollens)ii(

,OH)i(56 HCHOCHOHC →+

∆−

(d) by Cannizaro reaction

4. .ACHOCHCHCHaldol

OH3 → →−=−

∆−

A is

(a) CHO)CHCH(CH 33 = (b) CHO)CHCH(CHCHCH 2223 =

(c) CHOCHCH)CHCH(CH 2223 −= (d) none of these

5. Identify Z in the series

H OH | |

OCCHCHCH 23 =−−− ZYXCOONaCHSOCl

agentRe

s'Tollen 32 → → →

(a)

O O OH || || |

CHCOCCHCH 33 −−−−− (b)

O O O || || ||

CHCOCCCH 33 −−−−−

(c)

OH |

COOHCHCH3 −− (d)

O OH || |

OCHCCHCHCH 323 −−−

6. The product of the following reaction is O 4

3

LiAlH

OH,ether →+ ?

(a)2CH

(b)2CH OH

(c) OHH

(d)

O AlLi–

101 Quest Tutorials


Quest

7.O

→ 4NaBHOH

The yield of this re action will be

(a) 100% (b) 10% (c) 50% (d) 0%

8. The enol form of acetone after treatment with OD2 gives :

(a) 23 CHCCH| OD

=− (b) 23 CDCCD|| O

=−

(c)

OH |

DCHCCH 22 −= (d) 22 CDCCD| OD

−=

9. 1 mole of an organic compound requires 0.5 mol of oxygen o produce an acid. The compound is

(a) an alcohol (b) an aldehyde (c) a ketone (d) an ether

10. The conversion of acetone into diacetone alcohol is carried out in the presence of

(a) dry HCl gas (b) conc. 42SOH (c) 2)OH(Ba (d) heat

11. 33

18

CHCCH|| O

−−16

2OH A (unstable) → B, B is

(a)33

18

CHCCH|| O

−− (b) 33

16

CHCCH|| O

−−

(c)

OH

| CHCCH

| OH

18

33

16

−− (d) HOCHCCH

|| O

1823

16

−−−

12.

MgBrCH2

+→H

X OH ‘X’ is

(a) CHOCH3 (b) OCH2 (c)O

(d) 22 CHCH =

13. BAHCHO3CHOCHOCH

NaOH%50NaOH3

2

→ →+ . B is

(a)

OHCH |

OHCHCCHOH|

OHCH

2

22

2

−− (b)

OHCH |

HCOCHCH|

OHCH

2

22

2

−−

(c) +−NaCOCH 23 (d) OHCH3

Quest Tutorials 102


Quest

14. Which of the following aldehyde will not respond to Fehling’s Test

(a) acetaldehyde (b) benzaldehyde (c) formaldehyde (d) chloral

15. The following conversation can be carried out in presence of

OO

O

(a) 22OH (b) 722 OCrK (c) HCOHC 256 (d) HCOCF 23

16. )A(HCCOCHHCOHC

523356 →−−

The compound (A) is

(a) 523 HCOOCCH (b) 352 COOCHHC (c) 5223 HCOOCCHCH (d) none

17. Acid anhydrides add to aromatic aldehydes presence of bases to yield

(a) βα, unsaturated acids (b) βα, unsaturated esters

(c) βα, unsaturated alcohols (d) βα, unsaturated aldehydes

18. Which of the following reagents would produce acetophenone on heating ?

(a) calcium acetate + calcium formate (b) calcium formate + calcium benzoate

(c) calcium acetate + calcium benzoate (d) calcium acetate

19. In the transformation

OH

O

OH

the reagent is

(a) Zn/Hg.conc.HCl (b) 4NaBH (c) PdH2 (d) −OH,NH.NH 22

20.KOH

CNCH3PhCOPh → the major product is

(a)

Ph |

PhCPh| CN

−− (b)

CNCH |

PhCPh| OH

2

−− (c) PhCHPh| OH

−− (d)

CN |

PhCPh| OCH 3

−−

21.

O

∆ →

−OH

? Product is

(a) (b)

O

(c)O

(d) O

103 Quest Tutorials


Quest

22.

O

O →

−OH [X]. The product & the name of this reaction is

(a)

O

OH Tischenko (b)

OH

COO– , cannizaro

(c)OH

COOH, benzilic acid rearrangement (d)

O

OH

23.Benzene

Zn52233 HCOOCBrCHCOCHCH →+ ? Product is

(a)

BrCH

C

OCHCH

3

33

(b)

5223

3

HCOOCCHCH

C

OHCH

(c)

523

3

HCOOCCH

C

OHCH

(d)

BrCH

C

HCOOCOCHCH

3

5223

24. Which would not undergo knovengel reaction with carbonyl compound ?

(a)

O

O

(b)COOR

CHCOOR

2

(c) 5223 HCOOCCOCHCH (d)CHO

CHCH

23

25. Which will give silver mirror with Tollens’ reagent ?

(a) 33COCHCH (b)

OH |

CH—COCHCH 33 (c) 3COCH φ (d) φφ CO

26. →COOOHCF

3333)CH(COCCH ? The major product is

(a) 333 )CH(COOCCH (b) 333 )CH(OCOCCH

(c) both (d) none

27. →=+ 3BF2523 CHCHHCCOClCH ? Product is

(a) 33COCHCH (b) 733 HCOCCH

(c) 523 HCHCCOCHCH = (d) 23 CHCOCHCH =

Quest Tutorials 104


Quest

28. Cyclo pentane →hvCl2 [X]

OHHC

KOH

52

→ [Y]OH

ZnO

2

3 → [Z]. here [Z] is

(a) pentanal (b) pentan-2-one (c) pentane-3-one (d) pentane 1,5dial

29.

O

C CH

42

2

SOH

/Hg →+

? Product is

(a)

O

3COCH(b)

COOH

O

(c)

OH

3COCH(d)

OCHOCH2

30.OHCH

| OHCH

2

2+cyclopentanone → [X] Product is

(a)C

O O

3CHH

(b)C

O O

3CHCH3

(c)O O

(d)O

O

31.3

[O]23

CH]X[OC

CHCH

→=

−

& [Y]. Identify [X] & [Y]

(a) both are COOHCH3 (b) HCOOHCOOHCHCH 23 +

(c) both are HCOOH (d) HCOOHCCCHCH|| O

33 +

32. → 2ScO323 COCHCHCH . Major product is

(a) COCHOCHCH 23 (b) 33COCOCHCH

(c) HCOOHCOOHCHCH 23 + (d) COOHCH2 3

33. CHCHCOCHCH 33 ≡+OH)ii(

NaNH)i(

2

2 → ? Product is

(a)CHC

| CHC

≡

≡(b)

3CHC CH

−

(c)

3

323

CH |

COCHCHCHCH| OH

−− (d)

CHC |

CHCCH| OH

33

≡

−−

105 Quest Tutorials


Quest

34. Which will reduce tollen’s reagent, Fehnling solution & Benedict solution

(a) CHOφ (b) 33CHOHCOCHCH

(c) 33COCHCH (d) 33COCOCHCH

35.

O

].X[3NH → Product is

(a)

HO 2NH

(b)

2NH

OH

(c)

OHNH2

(d)

2NH

O

36.

O

BrCH2

→−OH Product is

(a)

O

OHCH2

(b)

O

2CH

(c)

O

(d)

O

37. +

3CH

3CH]X[OC

OH

∆ →=

−

Product is

(a)3CH

CO

CH3

(b)

3CH

C

CH3

O(c)

3CH

C

CH3

(d) no reaction

38. 3CH

OH OH

φ →+H ? Product is

(a) 3CH

OH

φ

C(b)

O

+CH3

φ(c)

O3CH

φ (d)

O3CHφ

39. Which would undergo aldol condensation fastest ?

(a) CHOCH3 (b)Cl

CH3C = O (c)

NO

CH

2

3C = O (d)

3

3

CH

CH

C = O

Quest Tutorials 106


Quest

40.∆ →

−OH3223 COCH)CH(COCH Major product is

(a)

3CH

O

(b)

O

O

(c)

3CH

O

(d)3CH

3CH

CO

41.∆ →

−OH

332 COCH)CH(OHC Major product is

(a)

O

(b) 3CHCO (c) 3CHO (d)

3CHCO

42.

OHCH|

CHOH|

OHCH

2

2

].X[3

4

)OEt(Al)ii(

KHSO)i( → here [X] is

(a)5222 HCCOCHCHCH

|| O

−−−−= (b) 5222 HOCCCHCHCH|| O

−−−=

(c) 222 CHCHCOCHCHCH|| O

=−−−−=

(d) 2222 CHCHCHCOCHCHCH|| O

=−−−−−=

43.

O

COOEtClCH2+BuOHt

BuOKt

−

− → [X], here X is

(a)

COOEtCH2

(b)

CHCOOEt

Cl

(c)

CHCOOEt

(d)

COOEtCH2

44. Dry distillation of Ca salt of hexane 1.6 dicarboxylic acid gives

(a)O

(b)O

(c)

O

O(d)

O

107 Quest Tutorials


Quest

45. ].Y[]X[CHOCHCHCHOH

3 → →−=∆−

Here Y is

(a) CHO)CHCH(CH 33 = (b) CHO)CHCH(CHCHCH 2223 =

(c) CHCHOCH)CHCH(CH 2223 = (d) none of these

46. .BANCHClCHCOCH 222 +→+ What are ‘A’ & ‘B” ?

(a) −522 HCOCClCH 2

3

CH—C|CH

O

(b) 3523 CH,HCOCCH — 2

3

CH—C|CH

O

(c)

Cl |

COCHCHCH 33 —

O

2

2

CH—C|

ClCH

(d) ,HCOCClCH 522

O

33 CHCHHCCH −−−

47.

CHOCHOCHCH 22

].X[PtH

/OH

2

→∆−

Product is

(a)CHO

(b)

CHO

(c)

CHO

(d)CHO

48.

3COCH

].Y[]X[3

22

NH

NH

(ii)LAH

)eq 1(Br)i(

− → →

−

‘Y’ is

(a)

32 CHCH −

(b)

BrCHCH|OH

2−

(c)

2CHHC −

O

(d)OHCHHC

|OH

2 −−

49.

OH OH | |

CC| | CH CH 33

φ−−−φ → 42SOH ? Product is

(a)

3CH |

OC2 =−φ (b)

O || |

CHCC| CH

3

3

φ

−−−φ (c)

OHC || |

—C—C—| CH

3

3

φφ (d) none

Quest Tutorials 108


QuestANSWERS

1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (c)

7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (c)

13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (c)

19. (d) 20. (c) 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (d)

25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (c)

31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (a)

37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (b) 41. (a) 42. (c)

43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (c)

49. (b) 50. (c)

50. [A] ←−OH ].B[CHCOCHCHCHO

H323 →+φ

+

‘A’ & ‘B’ are respectively

(a) both are 52HCHOCCH =φ

(b) both are

3

3

CH |

COCHCCH −=φ

(c)

3

352

CH |

COCHCCH,HCHCOCCH −=φ=φ

(d)

3

523

CH |

HCOCCHCH,COCH—CCH −=φ=φ

109 Quest Tutorials


Quest

CARBOXYLIC ACIDS & ITS DERIVATIVES

1. An ester A with molecular formula 2109 OHC was treated with excess of MgBrCH3 and the

compound so formed was treated with (C) 42SOH to form olefin (B). Ozonolysis of B gave

ketone with formula ,OHC 88 which shows positive iodoform test. The structure of A is

(a) 5623 HCOCCHCH (b) 5256 HCOOCHC

(c) 5656 HCOOCHC (d) 3563 COCHHCOCCH

2.

O ||

)CH(CHOCH 23−−−+

→H/OH)ii(

)excess(MgClCH)i(

2

3 A BOH)ii(

NaOCl)i(

3+

→

The product B is a mixture of 3CHCl and

(a)

O ||

CHCCH 33 −− (b) COOHCH3 (c) ( ) COOHCH 23 (d) ( ) COOHCH 33

3. The acid that reduces Tollens reagent is

(a) HHCO2 (b) HCOCH 23

(c) HCOCHCH 223 (d) HCOCHCHCH 2223

4. A,ACOCHBrHCsolution

NaOH256 → is

(a) 256 )OH(COCHHC (b) COCHOHC 56

(c) )HCO(CHOHHC 256 (d) +−NaCO)OH(CHHC 256

5. The addition product of compound ‘A’ with excess of methyl magnesium iodide followed by

acidification yields t-butanol. The compound A is

(a) methanol (b) ethanol

(c) propanal (d) methyl ethanoate

6. Acrylic acid reacts with HBr to produce

(a) HBrCHBrCOCH 23 (b) HCHBrCOCH 23

(c) COBrCHCH2 −= (d) HCOBrCHCH 222

7. X(monobasic acid) →∆,NH3 Y →

∆,KBrO Z .OHC)CH( 33HNO2 − → X is

(a) COOHC)CH( 33 − (b) OHCHC)CH( 233 −

(c) 233 CONHC)CH( − (d) none is true

Quest Tutorials 110


Quest

8. 523 HCCCH|| O

−− BA 352356 )HOC(AlHCOHC ← → A and B are:

(a) CHOCH,HCOOCCH 3523 (b) CHOCHCH,HCOOCCH 23523

(c) CHOCHCH,COOCHCHCH 23323 (d) none is correct

9.OHCH

NaBH

3

4B ←

O

O

OA4LiAlH

→ A and B are

(a)

O

OH

O in both cases (b)

OH

OHOH

in both cases

(c)

OH

OH

OH

O

OH

O(d) formation of A and B is not possible

10. Ease of esterification of following acids with OHCH3 :

HCOOH, ,COOHCH3 ,COOHCHCH 23

I II III

(a) III<II<I (b) I<II<III (c) II<I<III (d) equal

11. Ease of esterification of following alcohols with HCOOH:

,OHCHCH 23 ,CHOH)CH( 23 COH)CH( 33

I II III

(a) I<II<III (b) III<II<I (c) II<I<III (d) equal

12.C300

MnO3 HCOOHCOOHCH

° →+ Main product of this reaction is:

(a) CHOCH3 (b) 33COCHCH (c) HCHO (d) O)COCH( 23

13. AONaCHCH

H)ii(

essurePr

,CO)i(23

+

→∆

BOHCOCHCHC400

POH222

43

° →++= A and B are:

(a) COOHCHCH 23 in both cases (b) CHOCHCH 23 in both cases

(c) CHOCH,COOHCHCH 323 (d) COOHCH,CHOCH 33

111 Quest Tutorials


Quest

14. →++−− 22 BrKOHNHCR|| O

Intermediates of this reaction are except:

(a) R—N=C=O (b) NCR|| O

��−− (c)

H |

BrNCR|| O

−−− (d) a, c

15.

O

OA

OHCH3 → A is:

(a)

3

22

COOCH OH| | CHCH − (b)

COOH OCH| | CHCH

3

22 − (c) both are correct (d) none is correct

16. BACHOCHONaHC)HOC(Al

352352 → → A and B are:

(a) 5223523 HCOOCCOCHCH,HCOOCCH (b) 5233 HCOOCCH,COOHCH

(c) OHHC,COOHCH 523 (d) all incorrect

17. Which will show Hofmann degradation reaction ?

(a) 22CONHNH (b) 23CONHCH

(c) 223 NHCHCCH|| O

−− (d) 2NHCH|| O

−−

18.COOCHCH

|COOCHCH

22

22ABa →

∆ A is:

(a)

O

(b)

O

(c)O

(d)

O

O

19. End product of the following sequence of reactions are

O

O|

CHC 3−∆

∆+

+ →

.3H.2

,NaOHI.1 2

(a) yellow ppt. of ,CHI3

O

COOH(b) yellow ppt. of ,CHI3

O

CHO

(c) yellow ppt. of ,CHI3

O

(d) yellow ppt. of ,CHI3COOHCOOH

Quest Tutorials 112


Quest

20. For the following acids

HCOCCH)CH( 2233 HCOCHN)CH( 2233

⊕COOHCH3

I II III

apK values will be in order :

(a) I > II > III (b) I < II < III (c) I > III > II (d) II > III > I

21. Strongest acid out of

,HCOCH 23 ,HCHCOCH 22 =

HCO2

(a) HCOCH 23 (b) HCHCOCH 22 = (c) HCO2 (d) equal Ka

22. End product of this conversion:

HCOCHCHCCHCH|| O

22223 + →H,OH.2

NaBH.1

2

4 is:

(a) O

3CHO

(b) O

3CH

O

(c) OO

(d)

OH |

HCOCHCHCHCHCH 22223

23. On standing in dilute aqueous acid, compound A is smoothly converted to:

A 3CH

HCOCH 22

3CH

OO

(a)3CH

O

O

OH

(b)

O

O

OHCH2

(c)3CH

3CH

OO

3CH

(d)3CH

OO

3CH

O

24. Give the structure of the expected product of the following reaction

O

3CH

O →+ 23NHCH

(a)

3CH

O

3NCH

(b)HO

3CH

O

3NCH

(c)

OH | CHCHCHNHCCHCH

|| O

3223

(d) none

113 Quest Tutorials


Quest

25. 2CNH|| O

DCBA.)ppt yellow(

I,)OH(Ca

OH

MgBrCHOP 22

3

3104 → → → →∆

−+. D is

(a)3CHC

|| O

− (b) COOH

(c) C|| O

(d)

26. Which reaction is not reversible:

(a) OHRRCOOHOHRRCOOH

2 ′+ →+′+

(b) OHRRCOONaNaOHRRCOO ′+→+′

(c) OHRRCOOOHRRCOOH 2+′→′+ (d) all

27.COOH

O

COOHCH2A→

∆. A is:

(a)

O

COCH2

COO (b)

COOH

3CH

O

(c)

O

COOHCH2 (d) none

28. B∆

∆ ←

,Br,KOD.2

,NH.1

2

3 COOH A,Br,KOH.2

,ND.1

2

3

∆

∆ → What are A and B ?

(a) A is ,NH2 B is 2ND (b) A is 2ND B is 2NH

(c) both 2ND (d) both 2NH

29. Major end product of the following sequence of reaction is:

2223 CONHCHCHCH → →∆

222 HNOCl,)OH(Ca

(a) 2223 NHCHCHCH (b) OHCHCHCH 223 (c)

OH | CHCHCH 33 (d) COOHCHCH 23

30. Which of the following acid undergo decarboxylation on heating ?

(a)COOHCH

| COOHCH

2

2(b) 22 )COOH(CH

(c) COOH)CH(HOOC 42 (d)

COOH

COOH

31. But-3ene-1-oic Acid can be prepared by the action of which Grignard reagent with 2CO

(a) CHMgBrCH2 = (b) MgBrCHCH 23

(c) MgBrCHCHCH 22 = (d) MgBrCHBrCH 22

Quest Tutorials 114


Quest

32. Which can undergo HVZ reaction

(a) HCOOH (b) COOHCH3 (c)COOH| COOH

(d) CCOOHMe3

33. Which chiral isomer of 384 OHC (an acid) on treatment with LAH gives achiral product?

(a)

3

3

OCH |

CHCOOHCH (b)

OH |

COOHCHCHCH 23 −−

(c)

OH |

COOHCHCHCH 23 (d)

OHCH |

COOHCHCH

2

3 −−

34. Correct order of reactivity of acid derivatives towards a nucleophile is

(a) 22 RCONHRCOORO)RCO(RCOCl >>>

(b) O)RCO(RCONHRCOClRCOOR 22 >>>

(c) RCOClRCOORO)RCO(RCONH 22 >>>

(d) 22 RCONHRCOORRCOClO)RCO( >>>

35.

COOH

→HBr ? Product is

(a)

COBr

(b)

COOH

Br (c)

COOHBr

(d)

COOH

36. ‘A’hydrolysis

Acid ←

3

523

CH |

HCOCHCOOCCHhydrolysis

ketonic → ‘B’. ‘A’ & ‘B’ are

(a) COOHCHCH 23 , 323 CHCOCHCH (b) COOHCH,COOHCHCH 323

(c) 333 COCHCH,COOHCH (d) 52523 HCOCHC,COOHCH

37.COOH| CHO

+ 2CHCOOR

COORHOH,

Pipridine

∆ → ? Final product & the name of the reaction is

(a)HCCOOH

|| HCCOOH

knoevengel (b)COOH

COOH

22)CH( , claisen condensation

(c) =− CHHOOCCOOR

COOR

C (d) none of these

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Quest

ANSWERS

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (d)

7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (a)

13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (b)

19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (c)

25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (b)

31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (a)

37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (d)

38.COOH| COOH

].Y[]X[ 52

3

52 OP

NH2)ii(

OHHC2)i( → → What is ‘Y’

(a)CN| CN

(b)52

52

HCOOC|

HCOOC

(c)CO|CO

O (d)22

22

NHCH|

NHCH

39. What is the product in following crossed claisen condensation ?

+5252 HCOOCHC52

52

HCOOC|

HCOOC

+ →

H

52 ONaHC ?

(a) CHCH3

52HCOOC

52HCOOC

(b) CHCH3 −52HCOCOOC

52HCOCOOC

(c) CHCH3

52HCOOC

52HCOCOOC(d) CHCH3 −

52HCOCOC

52HCOC

40. + →=∆

CHCOOHCH2 Product is

(a)COOH

(b)COOH

(c)COOH

(d)COOH

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Quest

PRINCIPLE OF METTALURGY

1. Select the correct statementa) Dolomite is the ore of zinc b) Galena is the ore of mercuryc) Pyrolusite is the ore of iron d) Cassiterite is the ore of tin

2. The process of converting hydrated alumina into anhydrous alumina is calleda) roasting b) calcination c) smelting d) dressing

3. Electrometallurgical process, (electrolysis of fused salt) is employed to extracta) lead b) silver c) sodium d) none of the above

4. Poling process is used

a) for the removal of OCu2 from Cu b) for the removal of 32OAl from Al

c) for the removal of 32OFe from Fe d) in all of the above

5. Leaching is a process ofa) reduction b) concentration c) refining d) oxidation

6. Which one of the following is not a basic flux?

a) 3CaCO b) CaO c)2SiO d) MgO

7. Ore dressing for iron is done bya) froth floatation process b) magnetic separationc) hand picking d) all of the above

8. Silicon is the main constituent ofa) rocks b) alloys c) animals d) plants

9. Zone refining is a method to obtaina) very high temperature b) ultrapure Alc) Ultrapure metals d) Ultrapure oxides

10. To obtain chromium from chromic oxide ( )32OCr , the method used is

a) carbon reduction b) carbon monoxide reductionc) aluminothermic reduction d) electrolytic reduction

11. The furnace which gives the highest temperature isa) blast furnace b) reverberatory furnacec) electrical furnace c) muffle furnace

12. Which method of purification is represented by the following equations?

2

1700

4

523

2 22 ITiTiIITiKK

+ → →+

a) cupellation b) poling c) Van Arkel d) zone refining

13. Van Arkel method of purification of metals involves converting the metal to aa) volatile stable compound b) volatile unstable compoundc) non-volatile stable compound d) none of the above

14. The electrolytic reduction technique is used in the extraction ofa) highly electronegative elements b) transition metalc) metalloids d) highly electropositive elements

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Quest

15. Which method of purification is represented by the following equations?

( ) CONiCONiCONiCC

44180

4

70+ → →+

°°

a) Van Arkel b) zone refining c) Mond d) cupellation

16. The incorrect statement isa) Calamine and siderite are carbonates b) Argentite and cuprite are oxidesc) Zinc blende and iron pyrites are sulfides d) Malachite and azurite are ores of copper

17. In the electrolysis of alumina, cryolite is added toa) lower the melting point of alumina b) decrease the electrical conductivityc) minimize the anode effect d) remove impurities from alumina

18. Of the following, the metals that cannot be obtained by electrolysis of the aqueous solution of theirsalts area) Ag b) Zn c) Cu d) Al

19. In the electrolytic extraction of aluminium, the solvent is

a) molten 32

OAl b) water c) AlOFe32

+ d) molten cryolite

20. Cupellation is a process used for the refining ofa) silver b) lead c) copper d) iron

21. The anode mud in the electrolytic refining of silver containsa) Zn, Cu, Ag, Au b) Zn, Ag, Auc) Cu, Ag, Au d) Au

22. Froth floatation process is based on :a) specific gravity of the ore particles b) magnetic properties of the ore particlesc) wetting properties of the ore particles d) electrical properties of the ore particles

23. Sulphide ores are generally concentrated by:a) froth floatation b) roastingc) gravity d) reduction by carbon

24. Auto reduction process is used in the extraction of:a) Cu and Hg b) Zn and Hg c) Cu and Al d) Fe and Pb

25. Complex formation method is used for the extraction of:a) Zn b) Ag c) Hg d) Cu

26. Carbon monoxide reduction process is used for the extraction of:a) Cu b) Ag c) Fe d) Sn

27. In aluminothermic process, aluminium acts as:a) an oxidising agent b) a reducing agentc) a flux d) a solder

28. Heating of pyrites to remove sulphur is called as:a) roasting b) calcination c) smelting d) fluxing

29. Which one of the following is not a basic flux?

a) 3CaCO b) CaO c)2SiO d) MgO

30. In the manufacture of iron from hematite, limestone is added to act as:a) flux b) slag c) a reducing agent d) an oxidising agent

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Quest

31. In the froth floatation process, for the purification of ores, the ore particles float because:a) they are light b) their surface is not easily wetted by waterc) they bear electrostatic charge d) they are insoluble

32. Inner layer of blast furnace is made of:a) graphite bricks b) silica bricks c) basic bricks d) fire-clay bricks

33. Which oil is used as frother in froth floatation process ?a) mustard oil b) coconut oil c) olive oil d) pine oil

Answers

1. d 2. b 3. c 4. a 5. b 6. c7. b 8. a 9. c 10. c 11. c 12. c13. a 14. d 15. c 16. b 17. a 18. d19. d 20. a 21. d 22. c 23. a 24. a25. b 26. c 27. b 28. a 29. c 30. a31. b 32. d 33. d

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Quest

HYDROGEN AND ITS COMPOUNDS

1. Adsorbed hydrogen by palladium is knows asa) atomic b) nascent c) occluded d) heavy

2. Calgon is an industrial name given toa) normal sodium aluminium silicate b) sodium meta-aluminatec) sodium hexametaphosphate d) hydrated sodium aluminium silicate

3. Which of the following is not a water softener?

a) Calgon b) Permutit c)3CaCO d)

42SONa

4. The reaction, OHSOHSH 2222 2+→+ , manifests

a) acidic nature of 22OH b) alkaline nature of

22OH

c) oxidising action of 22OH d) reducing nature of

22OH

5. Hydrogen may be prepared by heating a solution of caustic soda witha) Mg b) Zn c) Fe d) Ag

6. The volume of ‘10 vol.’ of 22OH required to liberate 500mL

2O at N.T.P. is

a) 50 mL b) 25 mL c) 100 mL d) 125 mL

7. Hydrogen peroxide has aa) linear structure b) closed chain structurec) closed book type structure d) Half open book type structure

8. Hydrogen peroxide does nota) liberate peroxide from KI b) turn the titanium salt yellowc) give silver peroxide with moist silver oxide

d) turn the mixture of aniline, 3KClO and dil.42SOH violet

9. Hydrogen reacts with the following in the dark

a)2Br b)

2F c)2I d)

2Cl

10.22OH reduces ( )

63 CNFeK in

a) neutral solution b) acidic solutionc) alkaline medium d) non-polar medium

11. Which of the following is correct for hydrogena) It can form bonds in +1 as will as in -1 oxidation stateb) It is collected at cathode c) It has a very high ionization potentiald) All of these

12. Tritium undergoes radioactive decay giving

a) α -particles b) β -particles c) neutrons d) γ -rays

13. If HCl is added to the following oxides, which one would give 22OH ?

a)2BaO b)

2MnO c)2PbO d)

2NO

14. The oxide that gives 22OH on treatment with a dilute acid is

a)2PbO b)

2MnO c)22ONa d)

2TiO

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Quest

Answers

1. c 2. c 3. d 4. c 5. b 6. a7. d 8. c 9. b 10. c 11. d 12. b13. a 14. c 15. d 16. b 17. c 18. b19. c 20. d 21. c 22. c

15. Hydrogen gas will not reducea) heated cupric oxide b) heated ferric oxidec) heated stannic oxide d) heated aluminium oxide

16. A commercial sample of 22OH is labelled as ‘15 volume’. Its percentage strength is nearly

a) 1% b) 4.5% c) 10% d) 90%

17. Ortho and Para hydrogen differa) in the number of protons b) in the molecular massc) in the nature of spin of protons d) in the nature of spin of electrons

18. When zeolite, which is hydrated sodium aluminium silicate, is treated with hard water, the sodiumions are exchanged with

a) +H ions b)

++Ca ions c)

−−4SO ions d)

−OH ions

19. Under what conditions of temperature and pressure, the formation of atomic hydrogen from molecu-lar hydrogen will be most favoured ?a) high temperature and high pressureb) low temperature and low pressurec) high temperature and low pressured) low temperature and high pressure

20. 20mL of a sample of 22OH gives 400mL of oxygen measured at NTP. The sample should be

labelled as

a) 5 vol. 22OH b) dilute

22OH c) anhydrous 22OH d) 20 vol.

22OH

21. An orange coloured solution acidified with 42SOH and treated with a substance ’X’ gives a blue

coloured solution of 5CrO . The substance ‘X’ is

a) OH2b) dil. HCl c)

22OH d) conc. HCl

22. Hydrolysis of one mole of peroxydisulphuric acid producesa) two mole of sulphuric acid b) two moles of peroxymonosulphuric acidc) one mole of sulphuric acid and one mole of peroxy monosulphuric acidd) one mole of sulphuric acid, one mole of peroxy monosulphuric acid and one mole of hydrogenperoxide

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Quest

ALKALI METALS

1. Sodium carbonate is prepared bya) Solvay’s process b) Kolbe’s processc) Contact process d) Nessler’s process

2. OHOSNa 2322 5. is used in photography to

a) reduce AgBr to metallic Ag b) remove reduced Agc) remove undecomposed AgBr as a soluble complexd) convert metallic Ag to silver salt

3. What are the raw materials used in Solvay process

a) 33, CaCONHNaCl b) 2, CONaOH

c) 2, CONaCl d) 423 ,,, SOHCCaCONaCl

4. When chlorine is passed through concentrated solution of KOH, the compound formed is

a) KClO b) 2KClO c) 3KClO d) 4KClO

5. Which of the following has lowest thermal stability?

a) 32COLi b) 32CONa c) 32COK d) 32CORb

6. Which salt on heating does not give brown coloured gas?

a) 3LiNO b) 3KNO c) ( )23NOPb d) 3AgNO

7. Which one of the following does not react with NaOH?a) Zn b) Si c) Al d) Fe

8. The ion which has maximum value of hydration energy is

a) +Li b) +

Na c) +K d) +

Cs

9. Sodium burns in dry air to give

a) ONa2 b) 22ONa c) 2NaO d) NNa3

10. The solubility of AgBr in hypo solution is due to the formation of

a) 322 OSAg b) 32SOAg c) ( )[ ]−322 OSAg d) ( )[ ] −3

2322 OSAg

11. Among LiCl, RbCl, 2BeCl , 2MgCl , the compounds with greatest and least ionic character are

a) LiCl, RbCl b) 2, BeClRbCl c) 2, MgClRbCl d) 22 , BeClMgCl

12. Ease with which hydrides are formed from Li to Csa) decreases b) increases c) remains the same d) none of these

13. Thermal stability of hydrides of first group elements follows the order

a) RbHKHNaHLiH >>> b) RbHNaHKHLiH >>>

c) NaHKHRbHLiH >>> d) NaHRbHKHLiH >>>

14. In certain matters, lithium differs from other alkali metals, the main reason for this is

a) small size of lithium atom and +Li b) extremely high electropositivity of Li

c) greater hardness of Li d) hydration of +Li ion

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Quest

15. Which reacts directly with nitrogen to form nitride?a) Na b) Li c) K d) Rb

16. Nitrogen dioxide cannot be obtained by heating

a) 3KNO b) ( )23NOPb c) ( )

23NOCu d) 3AgNO

17. Sodium carbonate can be manufactured by Solvay’s process but potassium carbonate cannot beprepared, because

a) 32COK is more soluble b) 32COK is less soluble

c) 3KHCO is more soluble than 3NaHCO d) 3KHCO is less soluble than 3NaHCO

18. Zinc reacts with excess of caustic soda to form

a) ( )2OHZn b) ZnO c) 22ZnONa d) ( ) 32.ZnCOOHZn

19. A solution of sodium in liquid ammonia is strongly reducing due to the presence ofa) sodium atoms b) sodium hydride c) sodium amide d) solvated electrons

20. A substance X is a compound of an element of group IA. The substance X gives a violet colour inflame test, X isa) NaCl b) LiCl c) KCl d) None of these

21. Tin dissolves in excess of sodium hydroxide solution to form

a) ( )2OHSn b) 32SnONa c) 22SnONa d) 3NaClO

22. An element having electronic configuration 62222,1 pss , 162

4,33 sps will form

a) acidic oxide b) basic oxide c) amphoteric oxide d) neutral oxide

23. One of the natural minerals of sodium is tincal. Its formula is

a) OHCONa 232 10. b) 3NaNO

c) OHOBNa 2742 10. d) NaCl

24. In the following reaction, OHSNaASNaOH 252 ++→+ , A is

a) 32SONa b) 42SONa c) 322 OSNa d) SNa2

25. 23232 COAOFeCONa +→+ . What is A in the reaction?

a) 2NaFeO b) 32FeONa c) 43OFe d) 22FeONa

26. When dry ammonia gas is passed over heated sodium (out of contact of air) the product formed isa) sodium hydride b) sodium nitridec) sodamide d) sodium cynamide

27. From a solution of zinc chloride, zinc carbonate can be obtained by adding

a) 3NaHCO b) 32CONa c) 3CaCO d) 3MgCO

28. If NaOH is added to an aqueous solution of +2Zn ions, a white precipitate appears and on adding

excess of NaOH, the precipitate dissolves. In the solution, zinc exists in thea) anionic part b) cationic partc) both in anionic and cationic part d) colloidal form

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29. A white solid reacts with dil. HCl to give colourless gas that decolourises aqueous bromine. The solid ismost likely to bea) sodium carbonate b) sodium chloridec) sodium acetate d) sodium thiosulphate

30. Sodium sulphate is soluble in water whereas barium sulphate is sparingly soluble becausea) the hydration energy of sodium sulphate is more than its lattice energyb) the lattice energy of barium sulphate is less than its hydration energyc) the lattice energy has no role to play is solubilityd) the hydration energy of sodium sulphate is less than its lattice energy

31. The metallic lustre exhibited by sodium is explained bya) diffusion of sodium ionsb) oscillation of mobile valence electronsc) existence of free protonsd) existence of body centred cubic lattice

32. Ionic mobility of +

Li is less than +Na and +

K because

a) ionisation potential of lithium is small b) charge density of +Li is high

c) of high hydration tendency of +

Li d) +Li keeps two electrons

33. Which of the following compounds on reaction with NaOH and 22OH gives yellow colour?

a) ( )2OHZn b) ( )3OHCr c) ( )3OHAl d) None

Answers

1. a 2. c 3. a 4. c 5. a 6. b7. d 8. a 9. b 10. d 11. b 12. a13. a 14. a 15. b 16. a 17. c 18. c19. d 20. c 21. b 22. b 23. c 24. c25. a 26. c 27. a 28. a 29. d 30. a31. b 32. c 33. b

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Quest

ALKALINE EARTH METAL GROUPS

1. If 2CO is passed in excess into lime water, the milkiness first formed disappears due to

a) reversal of original reactionb) formation of volatile calcium bicarbonatec) formation of soluble calcium bicarbonated) formation of soluble calcium hydroxide

2. Lithopone is a mixture ofa) barium sulphate and zinc sulphideb) barium sulphide and zinc sulphidec) calcium sulphate and zinc sulphided) calcium sulphide and zinc sulphide

3. Carnallite is

a) KCl b) ( )23SiOLiAl c) OHMgCl 22 6. d) OHMgClKCl 22 6..

4. Which of the following alkaline earth metal ions has the highest ionic mobility in aqueous solution?

a) +2Be b) +2

Mg c) +2Ba d) +2

aC

5. Magnesium wire burns in the atmosphere of 2CO because

a) magnesium acts as an oxidising agentb) magnesium has 2 electrons in the outermost orbit

c) magnesium acts as a reducing agent and removes oxygen from 2CO

d) none of the above

6. Which of the following metal does not form ionic hydride?a) Ba b) Mg c) Ca d) Sr

7. ( )2

OHBe is

a) acidic b) basic c) amphoteric d) neutral

8. Which of the following is least soluble in water?

a)2BaF b)

2SrF c)2CaF d)

2MgF

9. The hydration energy of +2

Mg ions is higher than that of

a)+3

Al b)+2

Be c) +Na d) none of these

10. Which of the following metal dissolves in KOH with the evolution of hydrogen?a) Ca b) Mg c) Sr d) Be

11. When magnesium burns in air, compounds of magnesium formed are magnesium oxide and

a) 23NMg b) 3MgCO c) ( )23NOMg d) ( )

22NOMg

12. A fire work gave bright crimson light. It probably contained a salt ofa) Ca b) Sr c) Ba d) Mg

13. Sodium is produced by electrolysis of a molten mixture of 40% NaCl and 60% 2CaCl because

a)2CaCl helps in the conduction of electricity

b) +2Ca can reduce NaCl to Na c) +2

Ca can displace Na from NaCl

d) This mixture has a lower melting point than NaCl

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Quest

14. Kiesserite is an ore ofa) Cu b) Fe c) Mg d) Al

15. The right order of the solubility of sulphates of alkaline earth metals is

a) SrBaMgCaBe >>>> b) SrCaBaBeMg >>>>

c) BaSrCaMgBe >>>> d) SrBeBaCaMg >>>>

16. A piece of magnesium ribbon was heated to redness in an atmosphere of nitrogen and on coolingwater was added, the gas evolved wasa) ammonia b) hydrogen c) nitrogen d) oxygen

17. The following compounds have been arranged in order of their increasing thermal stabilities. Identifythe correct order

( )ICOK 32 , ( )IIMgCO3 , ( )IIICaCO3 , ( )IVBeCO3

a) IVIIIIII <<< b) IIIIIIIV <<<

c) IIIIIIIV <<< d) IIIIIVII <<<

18. A substance which gives a brick red flame and breaks down on heating giving oxygen and a browngas is?a) calcium carbonate b) magnesium nitratec) magnesium carbonate d) calcium nitrate

19. A compound X on heating gives a colourless gas. The residue is dissolved in water to obtain Y.

When excess 2CO is bubbled through aqueous solution of Y, Z is formed. Z on gently heating

gives back X. The compound X is

a) 3CaCO b) 32CONa c) ( )23HCOCa d) 32COK

20.2BeF is soluble in water, whereas, the fluorides of other alkaline earth metals are insoluble be-

cause of

a) ionic nature of 2BeF

b) greater hydration energy of +2

Be ion as compared to crystal lattice

c) covalent nature of 2BeF d) none of these

21. The order of increasing lattice energy is

a) BaONaBrCaONaCl <<< b) CaOBaONaClNaBr <<<

c) CaOBaONaBrNaCl <<< d) BaOCaONaClNaBr <<<

22. Amongst the following hydroxides, the one which has the lowest value of spK at ordinary tempera-

ture is

a) ( )2

OHMg b) ( )2

OHCa c) ( )2

OHBa d) ( )2

OHBe

23. In the reaction, 22 HANaOHBe +→+ , A is

a) ( )2

OHBe b) BeO c)22BeONa d) none of these

24. A chloride dissolves appreciably in cold water. When placed on a platinum wire in Bunsen flame, nodistinctive colour is noticed. Identify the cation.

a) +2Mg b) +2

Ba c) +2Pb d) +2

Ca

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Quest

Answers

1. c 2. a 3. d 4. c 5. c 6. b7. c 8. c 9. c 10. d 11. a 12. b13. d 14. c 15. c 16. a 17. b 18. d19. a 20. b 21. b 22. d 23. c 24. a

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Quest

THE BORON FAMILY

1. Aluminium does not react with

a) NaOH b) HCl c)2N d) 3HNO

2. Which of following compounds are formed when boron trichloride is treated with water?

a) HClBOH +33 b) HClHB +62 c) HClOB +32 d) none

3. In diboranea) 4 bridged hydrogens and two terminal hydrogens are presentb) 2 bridged hydrogens and four terminal hydrogens are presentc) 3 bridged hydrogens and three terminal hydrogens are presentd) none of these

4. Thermite is a mixture ofa) 3 parts powdered aluminium and 1 part ferric oxideb) 1 part powdered aluminium and 3 parts ferric oxidec) 1 part powdered aluminium and 1 part ferric oxided) 2 parts powdered aluminium and 3 parts ferric oxide

5. Which one is not a borane?

a) 95HB b) 105HB c) 115HB d) 106HB

6. In which of the following elements +1 oxidation state is more stable than +3?a) B b) Al c) Ga d) Tl

7. Inorganic benzene is

a) 62HB d) 333 ONB c) 633 HNB e) 104HB

8. Identify the statement that is not correct as far as structure of diborane is concerneda) There are two bridging hydrogen atom in diboraneb) Each boron atom forms four bonds in diboranec) The hydrogen atom are not in the same plane in diboraned) All B-H bonds in diborane are similar

9. Which of the following processes does not involve a catalysta) Thermite process b) Ostwald’s process c) Contact process d) Haber’s process

10. When aluminium heated with carbon in nitrogen atmosphere, the products are

a) Al + CO b)2COAl + c)

2COCOAl ++ d) COAlN +

11. When alumina is electrolysed in presence of cryolite, the gas liberated at graphite anode is

a)2F b)

2O c)4CF d) OF2

12. The electrolysis of pure alumina is not feasible becausea) it is bad conductor of electricity and its fusion temperature is highb) it is volatile in nature c) it is decomposed when fusedd) it is amphoteric

13. In the extraction of aluminium, the function of cryolite is toa) lower the melting point of alumina b) increase the melting point of aluminac) remove impurities from alumina d) minimise the anodic effect

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Quest

14. On the addition of mineral acid to an aqueous solution of borax, the following compound is formeda) boron hydride b) orthoboric acid c) metaboric acid d) sodium carbonate

15. Boric acid is prepared from borax by the action ofa) hydrochloric acid b) sodium hydroxide c) carbon dioxide d) sodium carbonate

16. When a solution of sodium hydroxide is added in excess to the solution of potash alum, we obtaina) a white precipitate b) bluish white precipitatec) a clear solution d) a crystalline mass

17. The blue coloured mineral ‘Lapis Lazuli’ which is used as a semi-precious stone is a mineral of thefollowing classa) sodium alumino silicate b) zinc cobaltatec) basic copper carbonate d) prussian blue

18. Which of the following is most acidic?

a) ONa2b) MgO c) 32OAl d) CaO

19. From 62HB , all the following can be prepared except

a) 32OB b) 33BOH c) ( )632 CHB d)

4NaBH

20. The halides of group IIIA elements behave as Lewis acids. The acceptor ability is maximum for thehalides ofa) Tl b) Ga c) Al d) B

21. The power of halides of boron to act as Lewis acids decreases in the order

a) 333 BBrBClBF >> b) 333 BFBClBBr >>

c) 333 BBrBFBCl >> d) 333 BFBBrBCl >>

22. Inorganic graphite is

a) 633 HNB b) 62HB c) BN d) 3BF

23. Which one of the following statements about 33BOH is not correct?

a) It is a strong tribasic acidb) It is prepared by acidifying an aqueous solution of borax

c) It has a layer structure in which planar 3BO units are joined by hydrogen bonds

d) It does not act as proton donor as it acts as a Lewis acid by accepting hydroxyl ions

24. In the commercial electrochemical process for aluminium extraction, the electrolyte used is

a) ( )3

OHAl in NaOH solution

b) an aqueous solution of ( )342 SOAl

c) a molten mixture of 32OAl and 62 AlFNa

d) a molten mixture of AlO(OH) and ( )3

OHAl

Answers

1. d 2. a 3. b 4. b 5. b 6. d7. c 8. d 9. a 10. d 11. b 12. a13. a 14. b 15. a 16. c 17. a 18. c19. c 20. d 21. b 22. c 23. a 24. c

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Quest

THE CARBON FAMILY

1. In group IVA or 14 of the extended form of the periodic table with increase in atomic number, theoxidising power of tetravalent species increases in the order

a) SnPbGa >> b) PbSnGa >> c) SnGaPb >> d) GaSnPb >>

2. Which form of the carbon has a two dimensional sheet like structure?a) diamond b) coal c) graphite d) coke

3. When steam is passed through red hot coke

a)2CO and

2H are obtained b) CO and 2N are formed

c) CO and 2H are obtained d) petrol gas is obtained

4. The material used to give blue colouration to glass isa) CoO b) NiO c) CdS d) Fe

5. CO forms a volatile compound witha) nickel b) copper c) sodium d) aluminium

6. A colourless gas which burns with blue flame and reduces CuO to Cu is

a)2N b) CO c)

2CO d)2NO

7. The structure and hybridization of ( )43CHSi is

a) bent, sp b) trigonal, 2

sp c) octahedral, 23

dsp d) tetrahedral, 3

sp

8. Annealing is best described asa) slow and gradual cooling b) sudden and gradual coolingc) cooling by water d) very slow cooling

9. Which of the following halides is least stable and has doubtful existence?

a)4CI b)

4SnI c)4GeI d)

4PbI

10. Which of the following oxides is neutral?

a) CO b)2SnO c) ZnO d)

2SiO

11. Which of the following compounds is used as a reducing agent

a)2SnO b)

2SnS c)4SnCl d)

2SnCl

12. The butter of tin is represented by

a) OHSnCl 22 5. b)2SnCl c)

4SnCl d) OHSnCl 24 5.

13. The hydroxide of which metal ion is soluble in excess of sodium hydroxide solution

a) +3Fe b) +3Cr c) +2

Sn d) +2Cu

14. Which one of the oxides is most acidic

a) ONa2b) NiO c) CaO d) SnO

15. Which compound is called sugar of lead

a)2PbCl b) ( )

23NOPb c)4PbSO d) ( )

23COOCHPb

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Quest

16. The difference in properties of 4CH and

4SiH is due to

a) large difference in the electronegativity of carbon and siliconb) large difference in size of carbon and silicon atomsc) the inability of silicon to expand its octetd) the inability of silicon to form double bonds

17. 4CCl is inert towards hydrolysis but 4SiCl is readily hydrolysed because

a) carbon cannot expand its octet but silicon can expand its octetb) ionisation potential of carbon is higher than siliconc) carbon forms double and triple bondsd) electronegativity of carbon is higher than that of silicon

18. Which does not exist ?

a) [ ] −2

6CCl d) [ ] −2

6SiCl c) [ ] −2

6GeF d) [ ] −2

6SnCl

19. ‘Softening of lead’ means

a) conversion of lead to PbO b) conversion of lead to 43OPb

c) removal of impurities (metallic) from lead

d) washing lead with 3HNO followed by a dil. alkali solution

20. Which of the following is obtained on heating potassium ferrocyanide with 42SOH ?

a)2CO b) CO c)

22HC d) ( )2

CN

21. What is the formula of carbon suboxide ?

a) CO b)2CO c)

42OC d) 23OC

Answers

1. d 2. c. 3. c 4. a 5. a 6. b7. d 8. a 9. d 10. a 11. d 12. d13. c 14. d 15. d 16. a 17. a 18. a19. c 20. b 21. d

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Quest

THE NITROGEN FAMILY

1. Nitrous oxide is prepared in the laboratory bya) combination of nitrogen and oxygen b) reduction of NO

c) reduction of nitric acid d) thermal decomposition of 34NONH

2. Which one of the following is used for the drying of ammonia?

a) conc. 42SOH b) CaO

c) 52OP d) anhydrous 2CaCl

3. Which one of the following is not used for the manufacture of ammonia?a) Haber’s process b) Cyanamide processc) Ammonical mother liquor d) Solvay ammonia process

4. Which one of the following oxides of nitrogen is a coloured gas ?

a)22ON b)

2NO c) NO d) ON2

5. Which one of the following is not an acid salt?

a)22PONaH b) 32PONaH c)

42PONaH d)42HPONa

6. The largest bond angle is in

a) 3AsH b) 3NH c) OH2d) 3PH

7. A colourless gas X forms a brown coloured gas when mixed with air. This shows the presence of

a) 3NH b) NO c) ON2d)

2NO

8. Nirtogen dioxide cannot be obtained by heating

a) 3NHO b) ( )23NOPb c) ( )

23NOCa d) 3AgNO

9. When treated with nitric acid which of the following liberates hydrogen?a) zinc b) copper c) magnesium d) mercury

10. 5PCl is kept in well stoppered bottles because

a) it is highly volatile b) it reacts readily with moisturec) it reacts with oxygend) it is explosive

11. Which one of the following is a tetrabasic acid?a) Hypophosphorus acid b) Orthophosphoric acidc) Metaphsphoric acid d) Pyrophosphoric acid

12. Red phosphours is less reactive than yellow phosphorus becausea) its colour is red b) it is highly polymerisedc) it is tetratomic d) it is hard

13. The most stable hydride is

a) 3NH b) 3PH c) 3AsH d) 3SbH

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Quest

14. Which of the following fluorides does not exist?

a) 5NF b) 5PF c) 5AsF d) 5SbF

15. When ammonia is passed over heated CuO, it is oxidised to

a)2HNO b) ON2

c)2N d)

2NO

16. Of the following, which has three electron bond in its structure?a) Nitrous oxide b) Dinitrogen trioxidec) Nitric oxide d) Nitrogen pentoxide

17. 3PCl reacts with water to form

a) 3PH b) HClandPOH 33 c) 3POCl d) 43POH

18. Ammonia reacts with Nessler’s reagent to givea) deep blue precipitate b) white precipitatec) green precipitate d) brown precipitate

19. When OHNH4 is added to copper sulphate solution, blue colour is obtained due to formation of

a) ( ) 443 SONHCu b) ( )244SONHCu

c) ( )2

OHCu d) CuO

20. A certain element forms a solid oxide which dissolves in water to form an acidic solution. The elementisa) S b) Mg c) Na d) P

21. Ammonia reacts with excess of chlorine to form

a) ClNHandN 42b) HClandNCl3

c) 34 NClandClNH d) HClandN2

22. Amongst the trihalides of nitrogen, which one is least basic?

a) 3NF b) 3NCl c) 3NBr d) 3NI

23. Which of the following is the strongest base?

a) 3AsH b) 3SbH c) 3PH d) 3NH

24. When orthophosphoric acid is heated at 240°C, the main product formed is

a) 3HPO b) 23POH c) 33POH d) 724 OPH

25. 3PH produces smoky rings when it comes in contact with air. This is because

a) it is inflammable b) it combines with water vapour

c) it combines with nitrogen d) it contains impurity of 42HP

26. The anhydride of 43POH is

a) 32OP b)42OP c) 52OP d) 3PO

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27. Phosphate + conc. ( ) 4243 MoONHHNO + soln. → Yellow precipitate. The composition of Yellow

precipitate is

a) ( ) 3434 .MoOPONH + b) ( ) 3434 12. MoOPONH +

c) ( ) 3424 12. MoOPONH + d) 344 .MoOPONH

28. One of the acids listed below is formed from 32OP and the rest are formed from 52OP . The acid

formed from 32OP is

a) 3HPO b) 724 OPH c) 43POH d) 33POH

29. Concentrated nitric acid reacts with iodine to give

a) HI b) HOI c)2HOIO d) 3HOIO

30. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is the anhydride of nitrous acid?

a) NO b) 32ON c)42ON d) 52ON

31. One mole of calcium phosphide on reaction with excess of water givesa) one mole of phosphine b) two moles of phosphoric acidc) two moles of phosphours pentaoxide d) two moles of phosphine

32. In 104OP , the number of oxygen atoms bonded to each phosphorus atom is

a) 2.5 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

33. When bismuth chloride is poured into a large volume of water, the white precipitate produced is

a) ( )3

OHBi b) 32OBi c) 82ClBi d) BiOCl

34. 3NH has much higher boiling point than 3PH , because

a) 3NH has a much higher molecular mass

b) 3NH forms hydrogen bond

c) 3NH contains ionic bonds while 3PH contains covalent bonds

d) 3NH undergoes umbrella inversion

35. By the action of conc. 42SOH , phosphorus changes to

a) phosphorus acid b) metaphosphric acidc) orthophosphoric acid d) pyrophosphric acid

36. The number of hydroxyl groups in pyrophosphoric acid isa) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 7

37. Among the following oxides, the least acidic is

a) 64OP b) 104OP c) 64OAs d) 104OAs

38. The basic character of the hydrides of Vth group elements decreases in the order

a) 3333 SbHAsHPHNH >>> b) 3333 NHPHAsHSbH >>>

c) 3333 AsHPHSbHNH >>> d) 3333 NHAsHPHSbH >>>

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Quest

39. The 3BCl is a planar molecule whereas 3NCl is pyramidal, because

a) N-Cl bond is more covalent than B-Cl bondb) B-Cl bond is more polar than N-Cl bondc) nitrogen atom is smaller than boron

d) 3BCl has no lone pair but 3NCl has a lone pair on nitrogen

40. Nitrogen can be purified from the impurities of oxides of nitrogen and ammonia by passing through

a) a solution of 722 OCrK acidified with 42SOH

b) concentrated HCl c) alkaline soution of pyrogallold) a solution of KOH

41. In white phosphorus ( )4P molecule which one is not correct?

a) Six P-P single bonds are present b) Four P-P single bonds are presentc) Four lone pairs of electrons are present d) P-P-P bond angle is 60°

Answers

1. d 2. b 3. d 4. b 5. a 6. b7. d 8. a 9. c 10. b 11. d 12. b13. a 14. a 15. c 16. c 17. b 18. d19. a 20. d 21. b 22. a 23. d 24. d25. d 26. c 27. b 28. d 29. c 30. b31. d 32. c 33. d 34. b 35. c 36. b37. c 38. a 39. d 40. d 41. b

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Quest

THE OXYGEN FAMILY

1. Which one of the following is an amphoteric oxide?

a) 2MnO b) ZnO c) CaO d) 2CO

2. The maximum bond angle is in

a) OH2 b) SH2 c) SeH2 d) TeH2

3. Which of the following hydrides of the oxygen family shows the lowest boiling point?

a) OH2 b) SH2 c) SeH2 d) TeH2

4. Which of the following oxides is most basic ?

a) ONa2 b) 32OB c) ZnO d) 32OP

5. Which of the following is the most acidic oxide ?

a) 32OAl b) ONa2 c) MgO d) CaO

6. When SH2 is passed through potassium permanganate solution, we get

a) potassium sulphide b) sulphurc) potassium sulphite d) manganese sulphide

7. When 2SO is passed through cupric chloride solution

a) the solution becomes colourless and a white ppt. of 22ClCu is obtained

b) a white ppt. is obtainedc) the solution becomes colourlessd) no visible change takes place

8. Which of the following bonds has the highest energy?

a) SeSe − b) TeTe − c) SS − d) OO −

9. Which of the following molecule does not possess a permanent dipole moment?

a) SH2 b) 2SO c) 3SO d) 2CS

10. Which of the following is the most powerful oxidising agent?

a) 42SOH b) 33BOH c) 3HPO d) 43POH

11. When 2MnO is added to 3KClO in the preparation of oxygen the decomposition temperature of

3KClO is reduced from 350°C to ................

a) 300°C b) 150°C c) 250°C d) room temperature

12. On heating ozone, its volume

a) increases to 2

11 times b) decreases to half

c) remains unchanged d) becomes double

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Quest

13. A black sulphide when treated with ozone becomes white. The white compound is

a) 4ZnSO b) 4CuSO c) 4BaSO d) 4PbSO

14. In the reaction, AOKOHOOHKI ++→++ 232 22 , the compound A is

a) 3KIO b) 52OI c) 3HIO d) 2I

15. Which one of the metal sticks to glass plate on treatment with ozone?a) silver b) mercury c) copper d) lead

16. Moist iodine reacts with ozone to form

a) HI b) 52OI c) 3HIO d) 4HIO

17. In the laboratory SH2 is prepared by the action of

a) dilute 42SOH on FeS b) dilute 42SOH on 3FeSO

c) hydrogen on sulphurd) hydrogen on 32SSb

18. The catalyst used in the manufacture of 42SOH by contact process is

a) platinised asbestos b) Nic) Fe d) NO

19. When oxygen is passed through 32SONa solution, we get

a) SNa2 b) 42SONa c) 4NaHSO d) NaH

20. The gases respectively absorbed by alkaline pyrogallol and oil of cinnamon is

a) 43, CHO b) 42 , CHSO c) 32 , OO d) 32 , OON

21. Anhydride of sulphuric acid is

a) 2SO b) 3SO c) 322 OSH d) 32SOH

22. When 2SO is passed through a solution of SH2 in water

a) sulphuric acid is formed b) a clear solution is formedc) sulphur is precipitated d) no change is observed

23. Which of the following turns lead acetate paper black?

a) 2SO b) 3SO c) 42SOH d) SH2

24. When SH2 is passed through nitric acid solution, the product formed is

a) 42SOH b) colloidal sulphur c) 2SO d) plastic sulphur

25. Ozone reacts with ( )64 CNFeK to form

a) 32OFe b) ( )3OHFe c) ( )2OHFe d) ( )62 CNFeK

26. Ozone turns benzidine papera) violet b) brown c) blue d) red

27. There is no S-S bond in

a) −242OS b) −2

52OS c) −232OS d) −2

72OS

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Quest

28. SH2 is far more volatile than water because

a) sulphur atom is more electronegative than oxygen atomb) oxygen atom is more electronegative than sulphur atom

c) OH2 has bond angle of nearly 105°

d) hydrogen atom is loosely bonded with sulphur

29. Hydrolysis of one mole of peroxydisulphuric acid producesa) two moles of sulphuric acidb) two moles of peroxymonosulphuric acidc) one mole of sulphuric acid and one mole of peroxymonosulphuric acidd) one mole of sulphuric acid, one mole of peroxymonosulphuric acid and one mole of hydrogenperoxide

30. SH2 does not produce metallic sulphide with

a) 2CdCl b) 2ZnCl c) 2COCl d) 2CuCl

31. The oxidation number of sulphur in SHFSS 2228 ,, respectively, are

a) 2- and1,0 + b) 2- and1,2 ++ c) 2 and1,0 ++ d) 2 and1,2 −+−

Answers

1. b 2. a 3. b 4. c 5. a 6. b7. a 8. c 9. d 10. a 11. c 12. a13. d 14. d 15. b 16. c 17. a 18. a19. b 20. c 21. c 22. c 23. d 24. b25. d 26. b 27. d 28. b 29. c 30. c31. a

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Quest

HALOGEN FAMILY

1. Which one of the following is most volatile acid?a) HF b) HCl c) HBr d) HI

2. Which one of the following is the strongest acid?

a) HClO b)2HClO c) 3HClO d)

4HClO

3. Which one of the following is the strongest oxidising agent?

a) HClO b)2HClO c) 3HClO d)

4HClO

4. Oxidising action increases in the following order

a) FIBrCl <<< b) FBrICl <<< c) BrClFI <<< d) FClBrI <<<

5. Which of the following is not oxidised by 2MnO ?

a) −F b) −

Cl c) −Br d) −

I

6. The iodine atom in −2ICl involves

a) dsp3 -hybridization b) 23

dsp -hybridization

c) 2sp -hybridization d) 3

sp -hybridization

7. Which is formed when 722 OCrK , 2CaCl and conc.

42SOH are heated?

a) ( )342 SOCr b) 3CrCl c)

22ClCrO d)42CrOK

8. The colour of iodine solution is discharged by shaking witha) aqueous sulphur dioxideb) sodium sulphidec) sodium sulphate d) sodium chloride

9. Chlorine gas is dried over

a) CaO b) NaOH c)42SOH d) HBr

10. Iodine is liberated from KI solution when treated with

a)4ZnSO b)

4CuSO c)4NiSO d)

4FeSO

11. In a given sample of bleaching powder, the percentage of available chlorine is 49. The volume ofchlorine obtained if 10g of the sample is treated with HCl at N.T.P. isa) 1.5 litre b) 3.0 litre c) 15.0 litre d) 150 l

12. Which of the following is the strongest acid?

a) ( )2

OHSO b) ( )22 OHSO c) ( )OHClO2

d) ( )OHClO3

13. The following acids have been arranged in order of decreasing acid strength. Identify the correct order ClOH(I) BrOH(II) IOH(III)

a) IIIIII >> b) IIIIII >> c) IIIIII >> d) IIIIII >>

14. When thiosulphate ion is oxidised by iodine, the new product formed is

a) −23SO b) −2

4SO c) −264OS d) −2

62OS

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Quest

15. Which of the following is a pseudohalogen?

a) 7IF b) ( )2

CN c)2ICl d) −

3I

16. When the vapour of chromyl chloride are passed through NaOH solution, it turns yellow. This is due toformation of

a) 722 OCrNa b)42

CrONa c) 3CrO d)42CrOH

17. The structure of 3ClF is

a) pentagonal bipyramid b) trigonal bipyramidc) octahedral d) tetrahedral

18. The structure of 7IF is

a) trigonal bipyramid b) octahedralc) pentagonal bipyramid d) tetrahedral

19. Chlorine water on cooling deposits greenish-yellow crystals of

a) OHCl 22 2. b) OHCl 22. c) OHCl 22 3. d) OHCl 22 8.

20. Mark the halogen which shows electropositive character :a) F b) Cl c) Br d) I

Answers

1. b 2. d 3. a 4. d 5. a 6. a7. c 8. a 9. c 10. b 11. a 12. d13. a 14. c 15. b 16. b 17. b 18. c19. d 20. d

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Quest

THE NOBLE GASES

1. The vp CC / ratio for noble gases is

a) 1.99 b) 1.66 c) 1.33 d) 1.0

2. The gas with lowest boiling point isa) hydrogen b) helium c) nitrogen c) argon

3. The formation of 4XeF is due to ............. hydridization of excited xenon

a) 2sp b) 3

sp c) dsp3 d) 23

dsp

4. The density of neon will be highest ata) S.T.P. b) 0°C, 2 atm c) 273°C, 1 atm d) 273°C, 2 atm

5. The inert gas obtained from monazite sand isa) He b) Ne c) Ar d) Kr

6. Of the following species, one which is non-existent is

a) 6XeF b) 5XeF c)4XeF d)

2XeF

7. Xenon difluoride isa) linear b) angular c) trigonal d) pyramidal

8. The structure of 6XeF is

a) distorted octahedral b) pyramidalc) tetrahedral d) none of these

9. Noble gases are chemically inactive because ofa) mono-atomic nature b) low boiling pointsc) closed valency shell d) rare occurrence

10. The mixture which is used by sea divers for respiration is of

a)22 O and N b) helium and

2O c) argon and 2O d) neon and

2O

11. Maximum number of compounds are known in the case ofa) neon b) xenon c) krypton d) argon

12. In solid argon, the atoms are held together bya) ionic bonds b) hydrogen bondsc) van der Waals’ forces d) none of these

13. Helium is added to oxygen used by deep sea-divers becausea) It is less soluble in blood than nitrogen under high pressureb) It is lighter than nitrogenc) It is less readily miscible with oxygend) It is less poisonous than nitrogen

14. Which of the following does not react with fluorine?a) Kr b) Xe c) Ar d) all of these

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Quest

15. Claude’s apparatus is used for the isolation of ............. from liquid aira) liquid oxygen only b) liquid nitrogen onlyc) noble gases only d) all of these

16. 6XeF on complete hydrolysis gives

a) Xe b)2XeO c) 3XeO d)

4XeO

17.4XeF exists as ......... under ordinary atmospheric conditions

a) solid b) liquid c) gas d) none

18. Which one of the following fluorides does not exist?

a)4HeF b)

4XeF c)4CF d)

4SF

19. Electron affinity of noble gas element isa) very high b) high c) low d) zero

20. In Kroll and I.C.I. process of the production of titanium, the inert gas used isa) Ne b) Ar c) Kr d) Xe

21. The spectrum of helium is similar to

a) H b) Na c)+

Li d)+

He

22. Which of the following gaseous molecules is monoatomic ?a) chlorine b) helium c) oxygen d) nitrogen

23. Which of the following statements is not correct?a) Argon is used in electric bulbsb) Krypton is obtained during radioactive disintegrationc) Half life of radon is only 3.8 daysd) Helium is used in producing very low temperatures

Answers

1. b 2. b 3. d 4. b 5. a 6. b7. a 8. a 9. c 10. b 11. b 12. c13. a 14. c 15. d 16. c 17. a 18. a19. d 20. b 21. c 22. b 23. b

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