MCQs Pharmacology_Series II-B
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Transcript of MCQs Pharmacology_Series II-B
Ω
Series II-B Model Paper Clin. Pharma.
Basic Medical Science Author Email: [email protected]
Time: 80 mins Total Marks: 100 | Pass Mark: 60
PHARMACOLOGYPlease use a dark pencil/pen to complete the test. Read the instructions at the begining carefully. This is a practice test series in Clinical Pharmacology.
Please Note: There is a Negative Marking of (-1) for each incorrect response.
1. Drug whose metabolism is enhanced by phenobarbital:
A imipramine
B theophylline
C midazolam
D carbamazepine
2. Metabolism of which of the following drugs is inhibited by Chlorpramazine?
A chlordiazepoxide
B phenytoin
C dicumarol
D propranolol
3. Drug whose metabolism is enhanced by griseofulvin
A Digitoxin
B Antipyrine
C Warfarin
D Alprazolam
4. Basic drugs binds to _____________ in blood
A albumin
B lipoproteins
C α1 acid glycoprotein
D α 2-macroglobulin
5. The enzyme CYP2D6 catalyzes the metabolism of which of the following drugs?
A Clomipramine
B Verapamil
C Fentanyl
D Lansoprazole
6. Protein that binds free hemoglobin released from red blood cells
A hemosiderin
B ferroportin
C hepcidin
D haptoglobin
7. A nonsedating tricyclic antihistamine which is a H1 receptors blocker:
A Betazole
B Loratidine
C Proxyfan
D Nizatidine
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Series II-B Model Paper Clin. Pharma.
8. All of the following drugs experience significant first-pass effect or first-pass metabolism in the liver except:
A lidocaine
B morphine
C demerol
D aspirin
9. Second generation H1 antihistamine include:
A Levocetirizine
B Fexofenadine
C Ketotifen
D Diphenhydramine
10. All of the following drugs are used in Parkinson's disease except:
A Nefopam
B Benzatropine
C Trihexiphenidyl
D Orphenadrine
11. Which of the following is an anticholinergic drug?
A Neostigmine
B Scopolamine
C Atropine
D Ephedrine
12. In patients who are allergic to penicillin, drug of choice for treatment of syphilis is:
A Ceftriaxone
B Tetracycline
C Amphotericin B
D Ampicillin
13. Which of the following drug is an example of fourth generation fluoroquinolones?
A Moxifloxacin
B Levofloxacin
C Norfloxacin
D Ofloxacin
14. Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is seen with:
A Amphotericin B
B Streptomycin
C Penicillin
D Griseofulvin
15. Drug with the highest CSF concentration in normal meninges
A Cefotaxime
B Cefuroxime
C Imipenem
D Sulphamethoxazole
16. Which of the following is a treponemal test for syphilis?
A VDRL
B RPR
C Flocculation test
D FTA-Abs
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Series II-B Model Paper Clin. Pharma.
17. Which of the following drugs have a low bioavailability but high protein binding?
A Labetolol
B propranolol
C Pindolol
D Acebutolol
18. Antihypertensive agent that does not cause vasodilatory edema as a side effect
A Hydralazine
B Nifedipine
C Carvedilol
D Minoxidil
19. Meissner plexus is found in which layer of the small intestine?
A Mucosa
B Submucosa
C Muscularies mucosae
D Muscularies externa
20. A benzothiazepine derivative:
A Guanabenz
B diltiazem
C verapamil
D nifedipine
21. Which of the following is an phenylalkylamine?
A Diltiazem
B Felodipine
C Verapamil
D Captopril
22. Antihypertensive agent that can be safely used in patients with bronchial asthma
A Verapamil
B Captopril
C Propranolol
D Butaxamine
23. Antidote for barbirurate poisoning is:
A Sodium nitrite
B Hydroxocobalamin
C Bemegride
D Obidoxime
24. Toxin which is eliminated by urine alkalinization
A Chlorpropamide
B Cyclophosphamide
C Valproic acid
D Meprobamate
25. Exchange transfusions may be helpful for which of the following toxicants?
A Phenobarbital
B Hydrazine
C Theophylline
D Thallium
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Series II-B Model Paper Clin. Pharma.
26. The mechanism of action of colloidal bismuth in peptic ulcer
A inhibits HCl acid secretion
B detaches and directly kills H. pylori
C inhibits H2 receptors
D stimulates mucosal PGF2α secretion
27. Absorption of Vitamin B12 is reduced by:
A metformin
B phenytoin
C grape fruit juice
D methionine deficiency
28. Vitamins required for intracellular nucleoside synthesis:
A Ascorbic acid
B Pantothenic acid
C Folic acid
D Pyridoxine
29. Bone marrow toxicity occurs with Flucytosine when its level is more than:
A 600 μmol/L
B 800 μmol/L
C 700 μmol/L
D 300 μmol/L
30. Drug-induced Lupus syndrome is frequently seen with:
A Ethosuximide
B Methrotrexate
C Procainamide
D Cyclosporin
31. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia is diagnosed when its value is less than:
A 200 pg/mL
B 100 pg/mL
C 150 pg/mL
D 125 pg/mL
32. Corrin ring is a constituent of which Vitamin?
A Vitamin B6
B Vitamin B1
C Niacin
D Vitamin B12
33. Drug that produces pyridoxine deficiency:
A Tetracycline
B Isoniazid (INH)
C Methotrexate
D Primidone
34. Drugs that displace methotrexate from protein binding cites includes all of the following except:
A Mesna
B Dicumarol
C cyclophosphamide
D Aspirin
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Series II-B Model Paper Clin. Pharma.
35. A metabolite which is highly nephrotoxic
A 6-mercaptopurine
B canrenone
C acrolein
D mycophenolic acid
36. Match the following: Classify the side effects of predinisone according to their major and minor side effects:
A. Osteoporosis A. minor side effect
B. Acne B. major side effect
C. Diarrhea C. major side effect
D. Weight gain D. minor side effect
E. Depression E. major side effect
37. An aminoglycoside antibiotic
A Azithromycin
B Paromomycin
C Vancomycin
D Clindamycin
38. Drugs contraindicated in acute intermittent porphyria
A phenothiazines
B phenobarbital
C benzodiazepines
D sulfonamides
39. Function of cytochrome CYP2E1
A metabolizes propranolol
B metabolizes paracetamol
C catalyzes oxidation of alcohol
D activation of procarcinogens
40. One which is a Beta-lactamase inhibitor:
A Sulbactam
B Sulfamethoxazole
C Ticarcillin
D Cefoperazone
41. Mechanism of action of tetracyclines:
A inhibits bacterial DNA gyrase preventing DNA replication
B inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis
C inhibits aminoacyl-tRNA binding to mRNA-ribosome
D protein synthesis inhibitor
42. An inhibitor of hepatic enzyme CYP2C19
A Omeprazole
B Carbamazepine
C Phenytoin
D Rifampicin
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Series II-B Model Paper Clin. Pharma.
43. Not true about acute intermittent prophyria
A metabolic disorder of heme synthesis
B characterized by deficiency of uroporphyrinogen I synthase
C autosomal recessive disorder
D characterized by deficiency of uroporphyrinogen III synthase
44. Profound CNS depression with bradycardia is seen in acute overdose/poisoning with
A nortryptiline
B atropine
C phenobarbital
D dosulepin
45. A cholinesterase inhibitor
A Tubocurarine
B Pregabalin
C Atropine
D Neostigmine
46. Which of the following drugs do not a depressant effect on the CNS?
A Atropine
B Zolpidem
C Methadone
D scopolamine
47. Which of the following drugs is associated with reversible cholestatic jaundice?
A Gentamicin
B Methotrexate
C Erythromycin estolate
D Trabectedin
48. One of the following drugs is a muscle relaxant:
A Doxylamine
B Pregabalin
C Baclofen
D Lamotrigine
49. Which of the following is/are anti-cholinergic drugs?
A Biperidine
B Neostigmine
C Atropine
D Cisapride
50. Which of the following is an anti-cholinesterase?
A Ipratropium
B Edrophonium
C physostigmine
D atropine
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Series II-B Model Paper Clin. Pharma.
51. The following drugs were pulled up from the market owing to ADRs. Which among these was responsible for causing idiosyncratic Type B hepatotoxicity?
A Trovafloxacin
B Valdecoxib
C Bucetin
D Temafloxacin
52. An indirect acting cholinomimetic agent:
A Neostigmine
B Tubocurarine
C Scopolamine
D Edrophonium
53. Which among the following drugs do not cause pseudomembranous colitis?
A Amoxicillin
B Bleomycin
C Clindamycin
D Levofloxacin
54. Succinylcholine sensitivity is due to:
A absence of choline acetyltransferase
B absence of butyrylcholinesterase
C absence of acetylcholinesterase
D absence of cholinesterase II
55. Which of the following drugs has a broad spectrum anticonvulsant activity?
A Carbamazepine
B Valproic acid
C Phenytoin
D all of the above
56. Which among the following causes phototoxic photosensitivity reaction?
A Amiodarone
B Tetracycline
C diphenhydramine
D all of the above
57. Pulmonary toxicity is caused by which of the following drugs?
A Busulfan
B Vinblastin
C Cisplatin
D 5-Fluorouracil
58. Drugs having MAOI property that inhibits the metabolism of primidone:
A Clobazam
B Isoniazid
C valproic acid
D all of the above
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Series II-B Model Paper Clin. Pharma.
59. Mechanism of action of Capsofungin:
A inhibits enzyme squalene epoxide
B inhibits enzyme Lanosterol 14 alpha-demethylase
C inhibits enzyme 1,3-Beta-glucan synthase
D inhibits enzyme Beta-galactosidase
60. Primary indication of Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRI)
A anxiety
B neuropathic pain
C depression
D epilepsy
61. A competitive inhibitor of serotonin N-acetyltransferase
A tryptamine
B serotonin
C melatonin
D dopamine
62. Organisms not susceptible to Chloramphenicol:
A Streptococcus pneumoniae
B Staphylococcus aureus
C Neisseria meningitidis
D Psuedomonas aeruginosa
63. An example of acetylcholinesterase inhibitor:
A Tubocurarine
B Donepezil
C Galantamine
D Atropine
64. All of the following are serious side effects of neomycin except:
A hearing loss
B respiratory paralysis
C optic neuritis
D renal damage
65. D-tubocurarine is:
A Cholinergic
B Anticholinergic
C Anticholinesterase
D Muscarinic agonist
66. Which is the most serious side effect of erythromycin?
A Diarrhea
B Ulcerative colitis
C Pseudomembranous colitis
D Prolonged QT
67. Which one of the following drugs is an example of centrally acting nicotinic antagonist?
A Pancuronium
B Dextromethorphan
C Trimethaphan
D Suxamethonium
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Series II-B Model Paper Clin. Pharma.
68. Hemolysin is produced specifically by which of the following bacteria?
A Staphylococcus aureus
B Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C Escherichia coli
D Streptococcus pyogenes
69. An example of acetylcholine receptor (ACHr) agonist which is used as a muscle relaxant:
A Pancuronium
B Succinylcholine
C Tubocurarine
D Scopolamine
70. Proximal myopathy is caused by all of the following drugs except:
A Colchicine
B Zidovudine
C Clofibrate
D Physostigmine
71. Drugs that inhibits cholinesterase:
A Atropine
B Neostigmine
C Dicyclomine
D Hexamethonium
72. Pyocyanin is secreted by which one of the following organisms?
A Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B Pasteurella haemolytica
C Vibrio cholerae
D Bordetella pertussis
73. Drugs that may be given in organophosphorus poisoning:
A Neostigmine
B Edrophonium
C Atropine
D Dyflos
74. The first line drug of choice for streptococcal pharyngeal infections:
A Erythromycin
B Penicillins
C Cepalosporins
D Tetracyclines
75. A depolarizing muscle relaxant having shortest duration of action and fastest onset:
A Pancuronium
B Tubocurarine
C Suxamethonium
D Dantrolene
76. A drug that may be given orally to prevent hepatic encephalopathy:
A Bleomycin
B Neomycin
C Clindamycin
D Kanamycin
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Series II-B Model Paper Clin. Pharma.
77. An antidote that may be given in anticholinergic poisoning:
A Atropine
B Doxacurium
C Physostigmine
D Tubocurarine
78. Which one of the following antimycotic agents interferes with fungal active membrane transport?
A Ciclopirox
B Tolnaftate
C Capsofungin
D Miconazole
79. Most serious side effect of chloroquine is:
A retinopathy
B hypotension
C aplastic anemia
D diarrhea
80. Antidote that can be given in cholinergic poisoning (cholinergic crisis):
A Atropine
B Pilocarpine
C Neostigmine
D Droperidol
81. A most common serious adverse effect of chlorpropamide therapy:
A hyponatremia
B obesity
C photoallergy
D Stevens-Johnson syndrome
82. Not a muscarinic symptom or effect of organophosphate poisoning:
A Tachycardia
B Bronchospasm
C Miosis
D Bradycardia
83. Ampicillin demonstrates activity against both Gram-positive and Gram-negative organisms. Which of the following is a Gram-negative organism?
A Staphylococcus aureus
B Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C Streptococcos pneumoniae
D H. influenzae
84. Amphotericin B is effective against all of the following organisms except:
A Cryptococcus neoformans
B Rickettsiae rickettsii
C Sporothrix schenckii
D Aspergillus fumigatus
85. Which of the following is a benzoic acid derivative?
A Glutamic acid
B Miconazole
C Whitfield's ointment
D Acetylsalisylic acid
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Series II-B Model Paper Clin. Pharma.
86. An example of flavonoid glycoside:
A Rutin
B Arbutin
C Amygdalin
D Stevioside
87. Most common viral agents that causes pneumonia includes all of the following except:
A Herpes simplex virus
B Rhinovirus
C Adenovirus
D Coronavirus
88. Antibiotics obtained from bacteria include all of the following except:
A Chloramphenicol
B Polymyxin B
C Colistin
D Aztreonam
89. Which of the following is not a mitotic inhibitor?
A Vincristine
B Vinblastin
C Etoposide
D Colchicine
90. One which is not an antimycotic (antifungal) agent:
A clotrimazole
B amphotericin B
C nystatin
D foscarnet
91. Protein binding of 5-Fluorouracil is about:
A 8-12%
B 5-12%
C 2.9-4%
D 14-17%
92. Drugs that bind to α1- acid glycoprotein includes all of the following except:
A lorazepam
B Lidocaine
C Chlorpromazine
D Propranolol
93. Which of the following is not a side effect of Paracetamol?
A gastric irritation
B hepatotoxicity
C intravascular thrombosis
D Stevens-Johnson syndrome
94. Hypoalbuminemia occurs in all of the following conditions except:
A dehydration
B burns
C hemodilution
D retinol deficiency
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Series II-B Model Paper Clin. Pharma.
95. A protease inhibitor used in Hepatitis C
A Amprenavir
B Nelfinavir
C Simprevir
D Tipranavir
96. Leukoencephalopathy is a side effect of treatment with
A Vincristine
B Cisplatin
C Methotrexate
D Cyclophosphamide
97. Theophylline level of more than ______ results in toxicity.
A 5 mg/L
B 10 mg/L
C 15 mg/L
D 20 mg/L
98. Drug which do not interact with theophylline:
A Erythromycin
B Ranitidine
C Ciprofloxacin
D Methotrexate
99. Function of acute phase protein serum amyloid A
A immune function
B prevents degradation of blood clots
C steroid carrier
D inhibits microbial iron uptake
100. Treatment of choice for mild acne vulgaris:
A Retinoids
B oral erythromycin
C topical salicylic acid
D Oral contraceptives
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Series II-B Model Paper Clin. Pharma.
Disclaimer: Every attempt has been made to validate each and every question/answers. Any remaining error is regretted. Author will not be held responsible for any errors. Please consult standard textbooks given in the reference section for any discrepancy. Questions with wrong answers may better be left unattempted/ unanswered. This is a practice series available free to download designed for the benefit of prospective PG candidates and UG medical students.
Reference Textbooks:1. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th Edition, KD Tripathi2. Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 13th Edition, Katzung & Trevor3. A Textbook of Clinical Pharmacology and Therapeutics, 5th Edition, Ritter, Lewis, Mant & Ferro
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