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PharmacologyBasic Medical Science Author Email: sidharta123@yahoo.com

Time: 40 mins Total Marks: 50 | Pass Marks: 30

PHARMACOLOGYPlease use a dark pencil/pen to complete the test. Read the instructions at the begining carefully. This is an Sample Test Paper for practice.

Please Note: There is a Negative Marking of (-1) for each incorrect response.

1. Drugs that reduces the bioavailability and absorption of warfarin

A acetaminophen

B cholestyramine

C phenothiazine

D benzodiazepine

2. Which of the following is a B1 kinin receptor antagonist?

A [Leu8]des-Hyp3-bradykinin

B [Leu8]des-Arg9-bradykinin

C d-Arg[Hyp3,Thi5,D-Tic7,Oic8]bradykinin

D DArg[Hyp3,DPhe7,Leu8]bradykinin

3. Drugs that inhibit metabolism of Warfarin include all of the following except:

A amiodarone

B disulfiram

C cimetidine

D aspirin

4. Which of the following agent is a non-purine xanthine oxidase inhibitor?

A colchicine

B allopurinol

C febuxostat

D probenecid

5. What is not true about Caffeine?

A is a CNS stimulant

B should be avoided in peptic ulcer

C plasma protein binding is <50%

D metabolized by acetylation and reduction in liver

6. Oral Cephalosporins include all of the following except

A cefixime

B cefepime

C cefaclor

D cefadroxil

7. Which of the following agents is not an immunosuppressant?

A IFN-α 2

B azathioprine

C mercaptopurine

D infliximab

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8. Uricosuric drugs are

A organic acids acting at cation transport sites of renal tubules

B organic bases acting at cation transport sites of renal tubules

C inorganic acids acting at anion transport sites of renal tubules

D organic acids acting at anion transport sites of renal tubules

9. Pick the correct statement regarding the mechanism of action of Leflunomide:

A increases TNA-α dependent NF-λB activation

B its metabolite inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

C its metabolite inhibits dihydroorotate dehydrogenase

D decreases IL-10

10. Which of the following agents is not an immunostimulant?

A Deoxycholic acid

B Chenodeoxycholic acid

C Tacrolimus

D Macrokine

11. Match the following with their correct alternatives:

A. pyrazolones A. phenylbutazone

B. orange discoloration of urine B. pyrazinamide

C. nicotinamide C. oxaprozin

D. niacinamide D. rifampin

E. propionic acid derivative NSAID E. energy metabolism

12. Which of the following is/are uricosuric agent?

A allopurinol

B metamizol

C losartan

D fenofibrate

13. Drugs that may cause hyperkalemia

A thiazide diuretic

B loop diuretics

C fluoride

D ß-agonists

14. Which of the following is a prodrug of mercaptopurine?

A allopurinol

B cyclosporin

C methothrexate

D azathioprine

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15. Match the following on the left with their correct options on the right:

A. Glycopeptide anitibiotic A. Cefotaxime

B. Polyene antibiotic B. Nalidixic acid

C. 3rd Generation Cephalosporin C. Vancomycin

D. 2nd Generation Cephalosporin D. Cefuroxime

E. Quinolone antibiotic E. Amphotericin-B

16. Ischaemic ventricular fibrillation is precipitated by

A hyponatremia

B hypokalemia

C hyperkalemia

D hypernatremia

17. Drugs that may cause hypokalemia:

A ß-blockers

B ß-agonists

C digitalis glycoside

D spironolactone

18. Factors that increase drug metabolism includes all of the following except

A administration of Phenobarbital

B charcoal-boiled foods

C heavy smoking

D young age (infants)

19. Which Leukotriene is a potent chemo attractant for eosinophils and T lymphocytes?

A Leukotriene C4

B Leukotriene B4

C Leukotriene D4

D all of the above

20. Drugs that are absorbed intact from the small intestine include all of the following except

A pentazocine

B morphine

C meperidine

D clonazepam

21. An example of competitive enzyme inhibition in which finasteride competes with testosterone for:

A cholinesterase

B 5a-reductase

C aromatase enzyme

D xanthine oxidase

22. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in patients who have

A renovascular hypertension

B bilateral renal artery stenosis

C ischaemic heart disease

D congestive hear failure (CHF)

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23. Match the following with their correct alternatives:

A. Hepatolenticular degeneration A. Carbapenems

B. Cysteinyl LT1 receptor antagonist B. Desmopressin

C. Diabetes insipidus C. Penicillamine

D. β-lactams D. Gentamicin

E. Aminoglycosides E. Montelukast

24. Colchicine inhibits the formation of which of the following cytokine?

A Leukotriene D4

B IL-1a

C IL-1ß

D Leukotriene C4

25. Drug that does not undergo enterohepatic circulation

A Oxaprozin

B Gemfibrozil

C Ezetimibe

D Flurbiprofen

26. An immunomodulatory derivative (IMiD) of thalidomide:

A cyclophosphamide

B Lenalidomide

C Leflunomide

D Tolazamide

27. ACE inhibitor with least bioavailability:

A perindopril

B fosinopril

C lisinopril

D enalapril

28. Drug which should not be used for analgesia in patients with gout

A indomethacin

B aspirin

C oxaprozin

D glucocorticoid

29. Which of the following agents suppress insulin release?

A phenobarbitone

B thiazides

C metformin

D diazoxide

30. Mechanism of action of metformin:

A depresses anaerobic glycolysis

B slows hepatic degradation of insulin

C suppress hepatic gluconeogenesis

D stimulates insulin release

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31. Mechanism of action and indications not common to both diazoxide and sulfonylureas

A both cause membrane depolarization

B both acts on K+ channels

C both affects insulin release

D both can be used to treat hypoglycemia and hypertension

32. Statements not true about desmopressin:

A has a circulating T½ life of 1.5-2.5 hrs

B has little effect on blood pressure

C should not be used in diabetes mellitus (DM)

D used in coagulopathy in Hemophilia B

33. Side effect of guanethidine:

A sedation

B severe mental depression

C postural hypotension

D extrapyramidal effects resembling Parkinsons' Disease

34. Drugs that should not be suddenly withdrawn after prolonged treatment include all of the following except:

A β-adrenergic blockers

B clozapine

C procyclidine

D fluoxetine

35. Match the following medications with their adverse reactions:

A. cyclophosphamide A. neutropenia

B. nafcillin B. torsades de pointes

C. ondansetron C. acute myeloid leukemia

D. ampicillin D. nephrotoxicity

E. cisplatin E. pseudomembranous colitis

36. Which of the following drugs is an immunomodulator?

A azathioprine

B cyclophosphamide

C methotrexate

D Glatiramer

37. Match the following classes of interferons & interleukins with their correct sources:

A. IFN-α A. mast cells

B. IFN-β B. lectin or antigen stimulated T cells

C. IFN-γ C. white cells

D. interleukin-2 D. fibroblasts

E. interleukin -3 E. lymphocytes

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38. What is not true regarding the actions of clonidine?

A has no effect on cardiac output

B decreases heart rate

C has no effect on capacitance vessels

D reduces peripheral vascular resistance

39. Which of the following is an adrenergic neuron blocking agent?

A clonidine

B guanethidine

C propanolol

D prazosin

40. Gray baby syndrome is a side effect of treatment with

A polymixin B

B chloramphenicol

C amphotericin B

D gentamicin

41. Drugs eliminated by zero order kinetics:

A phenobarbital

B nicorandil

C ethosuximide

D cisplatin

42. Drug with the longest T½ life:

A Dutasteride

B Bedaquiline

C Fluoxetin

D Amiodarone

43. Match the following drugs with their correct T½ lives:

A. Doxycycline A. 1.6 hrs

B. Salbutamol B. 32 hrs

C. Digoxin C. 40 hrs

D. Morphine D. 2-3 hrs

E. chlorpropamide E. 20 hrs

44. Drugs that follow Michaelis Menten kinetics

A alprenolol

B amitriptyline

C chlorthiazide

D clomethiazole

45. Drugs that block myocardial Na+ ion channels

A Amiodarone

B Quinidine

C Amiloride

D Nifedipine

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46. Mechanism of action of amiloride

A antagonize the effect of aldosterone in collecting tubules

B enhances Na+ and Ca2+ reabsorption in the PCT

C blocks Na+/Cl- transporter (NCC) in DCT

D inhibits renal epithelial Na+

channels

47. Drug that inhibits T-type Ca2+ channels in thalamic neurons

A Ethosuximide

B Lithium

C zolpidem

D carbamazepine

48. Which of the following agent is a pyrozolopyrimidine hypnotic?

A zolpidem

B zaleplon

C eszopiclone

D ziprasidone

49. Which of the following is not an exclusive secondary active metabolite of chlordiazepoxide following its biotransformation?

A desmethylchlordiazepoxide

B desmomethyldiazepam

C α-hydroxy metabolites

D demoxepam

50. Drugs that inhibit peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

A carbimazole

B methimazole

C propylthiouracil

D amiodarone

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