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Series I-C Model Paper Microbiology

Basic Medical Science Author Email: sidharta123@yahoo.com

Time: 80 mins Total Marks: 100 | Pass Mark: 60

MEDICAL MICROBIOLOGYPlease use a dark pencil/pen to complete the test. Read the instructions at the begining carefully. This is a practice test series in Medical Microbiology.

Please Note: There is a Negative Marking of (-1) for each incorrect response.

1. Case Study:A 39-year-old man presents with fever, fatigue, headache and black discharge from his nose. On physical examination, swelling is observed in one of his eyes. The patient also complaints of persistent headache behind the affected eye. What could be the most probable diagnosis?

A Mucormycosis

B Blastomycosis

C Coccidioidomycosis

D Cryptococcosis

2. Consider the following statements about bacteria:Statement 1: Most bacteria have ssDNA but lacks mitochondriaStatement 2: Small subunit of ribosomes are composed of 16S rRNAStatement 3: Bacterial exoenzymes are potent toxins which can affect humansWhich of the statements given above are correct?

A 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 3

C 2 and 3

D 1 and 2

3. Which exotoxin uses a mechanism similar to diphtheria toxin to inhibit protein synthesis?

A tetanolysin

B toxin A of pseudomonas aeruginosa

C thioredoxin

D rImmunotoxin of P. pastoris

4. Water Chlorination is effective against all of the following organisms except

A Escherichia coli

B Vibrio cholerae

C Cryptosporidium

D Schistosomiasis cercariae

5. Apicomplexan parasites include all of the following except

A Toxoplasma gondii

B Cyclospora cayetensis

C plasmodium malariae

D Perkinsus marinus

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Series I-C Model Paper Microbiology

6. Hypersensitivity vasculitis is an example of

A Immune complex mediated reaction

B T cell mediated hypersensitivity reaction

C Allergic reaction

D antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)

7. The toxic gene encoded in Cornybacterium diphtheriae

A encodes a polypetide chain of 435 amino acids

B codes for two subunits of the polypetide chain known as A-B toxin

C codes for two subunits of the polypetide chain known as C-D toxin

D encodes a polypetide chain of 535 amino acids

E none of the above

8. Caseous necrosis is seen mostly in which type of Cutaneous tuberculosis (CTB)?

A lupus vulgaris

B Lichen scrofulosorum

C scrofuloderma

D erythema nodosum

9. Granulomas are collection of all of the following except

A Langhans giant cell

B tissue macrophage

C dendritic cell

D histiocytes

E Hofbauer cell

10. Not true about Granuloma inguinale

A diagnosis usually made by Frie test

B caused by Calymmatobacterium G.

C characterized by gentinal ulcers

D effective treatment is with amphotericin B and tetracycline

11. Which of the following fungus is a causative agent of subcutaneous mycosis?

A Histoplasma capsulatum

B Madurella mycetomatis

C Cryptococcus neoformans

D Candida albicans

12. Fungal meningitis in AIDS patients is caused by

A Exserohilum rostratum

B Aspergillus fumigatus

C Cryptococcus neoformans

D Coccidioides immitis

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Series I-C Model Paper Microbiology

13. The confirmatory test most sensitive for diagnosis of candidiasis

A complement fixation

B sputum cultures

C latex agglutination test

D cultures of skin lesions

E quantitative urine culture

14. Which of the following statements regarding corona virus infection has no good reasons to be incorrect?

A corona virus infections in humans mostly confined to URI

B corona virus is the causative agent of SARS outbreak

C incubation period 5-8 days

D corona virus infections in humans mostly cause gastroenteritis

15. Most sensitive test for detection of rotaviruses in stool specimens

A EIA

B nucleic acid hybridization

C RNA genotyping by PCR

D cell culture (HEK)

E ELISA

16. A transport medium for streptococcus pyogenes

A Cary Blair medium

B Bile peptone medium

C Glycerol saline medium

D Pikes medium

E Stuart medium

17. Which of the following is an enrichment medium?

A Loeffler’s serum slope

B Bile peptone Medium

C MacConkey Agar Medium

D chocolate agar

E Nutrient broth

18. Acute uncomplicated cystitis is usually caused by

A Proteus

B Staphylococcus

C all of the above

D Enterobactor

E E.coli

19. Bacteriuria is significant when the number of colonies are greater than

A 10-2CFU/ml of urine

B 10-3CFU/ml of urine

C 10-5 CFU/ml of urine

D 10-7CFU/ml of urine

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Series I-C Model Paper Microbiology

20. Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) is a component of

A innate immune system

B cell mediated immune system

C adaptive immune system

D nonspecific immune system

21. Most common clinical type of re-infection cutaneous tuberculosis is

A scrofuloderma

B lupus vulgaris

C papulonecrotic

D tuberculous verucossa cutis

E lichen scrofulosorum

22. All of the following tests are used in laboratory diagnosis of hydatidosis except:

A counterimmunoelectrophoresis

B indirect haemagglutination

C serum agglutination test

D electroimmunotransfer blot assay

E indirect immunofluorescence assay

23. A combination of Serum agglutination test with Coomb's test is diagnostic of

A Hydatosis

B Cysticercosis

C Q Fever

D Brucellosis

24. The most frequent laboratory-acquired bacterial infection:

A Brucellosis

B Coccidioidomycosis

C Tularemia

D Q Fever

E Neisseria meningitidis

25. Type II hypersensitivity reaction is associated with

A Henoch-Schönlein purpura

B Systemic lupus erythematosus

C Goodpasture's syndrome

D Hemolytic disease of the newborn

26. Mitsuda reaction is seen in which form of leprosy?

A lepromatous form

B tuberculoid form

C Both

D None

27. Which of the following organisms is the largest intestinal parasite of humans?

A Entamoeba hartmanni

B Entamoeba histolytica

C Entamoeba coli

D Balantidium coli

E Escherichia coli

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Series I-C Model Paper Microbiology

28. Tick born diseases/illnesses include all of the following except:

A Tularemia

B Relapsing fever

C Lyme disease

D Dengue hemorrhagic fever

29. Following statements about rotavirus has no good reasons to be correct

A Rotavirus A causes gastroenteritis >90% in humans

B Rotavirus D causes gastroenteritis >90% in humans

C single-stranded RNA virus

D double-stranded RNA virus

E causative agent of "stomach flu"

30. Hydatid cyst is caused by the larval form of which of the following organism?

A Taenia solium

B Echinococcus

C Diphyllobothrium latum

D Hymenolepsis nana

E Toxocara canis

31. Organism that causes amoebic dysentery in humans

A Entamoeba coli

B Balantidium coli

C Entamoeba histolytica

D Entamoeba dispar

32. Which organism constitutes about 30% of all gut flora (microflora of the gut)?

A Bacteroides

B Clostridium

C Peptococcus

D Esch. coli

E Lactobacillus

33. The virus that causes Molluscum contagiosum belongs to which family?

A Picornaviridae

B Poxviridae

C Parvoviridae

D Orthomyxoviridae

34. Which of the following is a oncogenic RNA virus?

A Papillomaviruses

B Human T cell leukemia virus

C Polyomavirus

D Cytomegalovirus

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Series I-C Model Paper Microbiology

35. Pick the most appropriate statement about pneumocystis carinii

A P. carinii can be cultured in vitro

B occurs almost exclusively in immunocompromised hosts

C laboratory diagnosis is by microscopy or PCR only

D it is protozoan infection confined only to lungs

36. Immunoglobulin with a least content (lowest %) of carbohydrate-

A IgE

B IgM

C IgD

D IgG

37. In Type I hypersensitivity, the antibody is

A IgA

B IgE

C IgG

D IgM

38. Organism which is a causative agent of San Joaquin fever

A Coccidioides immitis

B Cryptococcus neoformans

C Rickettsia rickettsii

D Coxiella burnetii

39. Regarding Rabies infection, pick the incorrect statements:

A rabies virus replicates at the site of bite wound

B non-enveloped double stranded DNA genome

C FA staining is useful for diagnosis of rabies

D enveloped single stranded RNA genome

40. Soft chancre is caused by

A Chlamydia trachomatis

B Mycoplasma genitalium

C Haemophilus ducreyi

D Human papillomavirus (HPV)

41. The causative agent of Fifth disease (Erythema infectiosum)

A Human herpesvirus 7

B Human herpesvirus 6

C Human papillomavirus

D Human parvovirus B19

42. The causative agent of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

A polyoma virus

B BK virus

C papilloma virus

D parvovirus

43. The natural definitive host for Gnathostoma spinigerum is

A human

B cyclops

C dog

D fish

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Series I-C Model Paper Microbiology

44. Causative agent of Scrub typhus is

A Rickettsia typhi

B Rickettsia prowazeki

C Orientia tsutsugamushi

D Borrelia burgdorferi

45. Which type of human papilloma virus (HPV) is classified as low-risk mucosal type HPV?

A type 6,11,40

B type 6,16,18

C type 30,31,22

D type 16 and 18

E none of the above

46. Swimming pool granuloma is caused by

A Mycobacterium fortuitum

B Mycobacterium chelonei

C Mycobacterium ulcerans

D Mycobacterium abscessus

47. Which of the following microorganisms belongs to Ascomycetes?

A Trichophyton

B Rhizopus

C C. neoformans

D Absidia

48. Ringworm infection of the scalp and hair:

A Tinea unguium

B Tinea capitis

C Tinea corporis

D Tinea pedis

49. Mass of immunoglobulin D (IgD) heavy chain

A 65 kDa

B 56 kDa

C 70 kDa

D 72 kDa

50. Which of the following conditions is a result of Type IV hypersensitivity reaction?

A Crohn's disease

B Behçet's disease

C Graves' disease

D Myasthenia gravis

51. The correct formula of immunoglobulin M (IgM) isotype J chain

A 5[2μ+2k or 2λ]+ J

B 5[2μd+2k or 2λ]+ J

C 2[2α1+2k or 2λ]+ J

D 2[2α2+2k or 2λ]+ J

52. Which of the following immunoglobulin antibodies do not fix complement?

A IgG

B IgD

C sIgA

D IgM

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Series I-C Model Paper Microbiology

53. The causative agent of Japanese Lung fluke

A Clonorchis sinensis

B Fasciolopsis buski

C Paragonimus westermani

D Leucochloridium paradoxum

54. An example of Type III hypersensitivity reaction (immune response):

A transplant rejection

B serum sickness

C anaphylaxis

D Multiple sclerosis

55. Which of the following is not an infection transmitted to man by tick bites?

A Rocky Mountain Spotted fever

B Relapsing fever

C Babesiosis

D Q fever

56. The causative agent of Rocky Mountain Spotted fever

A R. rickettsii

B Ehrlichia chaffeensis

C Coxiella burnetti

D R. prowazekii

E R. typhi

57. Which of the following organism is responsible for causing Q fever?

A Rickettsia rickettsii

B Borrelia burgdorferi

C Coxiella burnetii

D Amblyomma americanum

58. Following symptom is not characteristic of Reiter's syndrome:

A urethritis

B orchitis

C oligoarthritis

D conjunctivitis

59. Case Study: A 31 yr old male presents with complaints of porridge-like diarrhea, abdominal pain, fever, and weight loss. On being examined, the stool is foul smelling and contains excess fat, but does not contain any blood. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A Crohn's disease

B Ulcerative colitis

C Amoebic dysentery

D Campylobacteriosis

60. Chikungunya virus belongs to which viral family?

A Bunyaviridae

B Flaviviridae

C Coronaviridae

D Togaviridae

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Series I-C Model Paper Microbiology

61. Case Study: A 16-year-old boy presents with high fever for the past four days, besides sore throat, malaise, and with inflamed eyes but no discharge of pus. On physical examination, lymph nodes of his neck are found to be slightly enlarged. He has a H/O of a visit to a summer camp the previous week. What could be the most probable diagnosis?

A Pharyngoconjunctival fever

B Stevens-Johnson syndrome

C Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis

D Spring catarrh

62. Which of the following agent is a secondary vector of dengue virus?

A Aedes polynesiensis

B Anopheles gambiae

C Aedes albopictus

D Aedis egypti

63. Interleukin that augments the cytotoxic function of NK cells

A interleukin-12

B interleukin-17

C interleukin-13

D interleukin-15

64. Case Study:A 54-year-old man complaints of cough, mediastinal pain, and shortness of breadth when breathing in. He is a chronic smoker and has a H/O of chronic alcohol consumption. Physical examination of the patient otherwise do not reveal much, except for few red skin bumps on his lower right leg. What could be the possible diagnosis?

A Tuberculosis

B Coccidioidomycosis

C Sporotrichosis

D Histoplasmosis

65. Which of the following immunoglobulins is/are used to detect or diagnose dengue virus infection using ELISA?

A IgM

B IgD

C IgA

D IgG

66. Match the following with their correct choices:

A. Dengue virus A. Picornavirus

B. Hepatitis A virus B. dsDNA-RT

C. Hepatitis B virus C. Flaviviridae

D. Hepatitis C virus D. Coronavirus

E. SARS E. +ssRNA

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Series I-C Model Paper Microbiology

67. Most common cause of acute viral hepatitis in India is due to:

A Hepatitis A virus (HAV)

B Hepatitis B virus (HBV)

C Hepatitis C virus (HCV)

D Hepatitis E virus (HEV)

68. All of the following features are characteristics of HIV infection except:

A maculopapular rash

B fever

C lymphocytosis

D inversion of CD4+ T cells : CD8+ T cells ratio

69. Lymphocytopenia occurs in all of the following conditions except:

A Typhoid

B hepatitis

C Systemic lupus erythematosis

D Rheumatoid arthritis

70. Causes of relative lymphocytosis includes all of the following except:

A thyrotoxicosis

B toxoplasmosis

C Addison's disease

D acute viral infections

71. Major component of the immune system in Drosophila melanogaster:

A plasmatocyte

B hemocyte

C plasmacyte

D plasmalogen

72. Which of the following statements about Giardia lamblia is/are incorrect?

A colonizes the large intestine

B cysts resistant to chlorination

C lacks mitochondria

D lacks microtubules

73. Which of the following Interleukins is a mediator of inflammation?

A IL-2

B IL-1

C IL-6

D IL-4

74. P jerovicii is the causative agent of pneumocystis pneumonia in humans. Which of the following statements regarding P. jerovicii do you think is incorrect?

A occurs in HIV patients when CD4 count < 200 cells/microliter

B identified by hematoxylin and eosin stained lung tissue

C cannot be grown in culture

D is an intracellular fungal parasite

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Series I-C Model Paper Microbiology

75. Cryptosporidiosis: Pick the incorrect statements

A incubation period 5-12 days

B itraconazole is an effective treatment

C self-limiting in healthy individuals

D is a zoonotic infection

76. Primary vector for bubonic plague is

A Nosopsyllus fasciatus

B Dasypsyllus gallinulae

C Spilopsyllus cuniculi

D Xenopsylla cheopsis

77. Not true about Interferon-α

A produced by monocytes

B formation inhibited by interleukin-10

C used to treat hepatitis B

D activated by interleukin-12

78. Stages of Plasmodium lifecycle that does not occur in humans

A formation of merozoites

B latent hypnozoites stage

C formation of zygotes

D erythrocytic schizogony

79. A patient with cancer on chemotherapy has a platelet count of 46,000 per microliter. Which of the following agents do you think is the best to treat thrombocytopenia?

A lithium carbonate

B interleukin-4

C interleukin-2

D interleukin-11

80. Case Study:A 45-year-old male patient presents with fever, cough, arthralgia, and persistent weight loss at the outpatient department. On physical examination, he complains of pleuritic chest pain and night sweats. What could be the most probable diagnosis?

A Histoplamosis

B Sporotrichosis

C Blastomycosis

D Tuberculosis

81. Arrange the items in their correct order of events/sequence regarding plasmodium parasite:

A. merozoites

B. zygotes

C. trophozoites

D. schizonts

E. sporozoites

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Series I-C Model Paper Microbiology

82. All of the following agents are mycotic mytotic inhibitors except:

A neoxaline

B griseofulvin

C aurantiamine

D colchicine

83. Which of the following statements about the mechanism of action of Amphotericin B is correct?

A interfere with peptide chain synthesis

B inhibit of nucleic acid synthesis

C inhibitor of cell membrane function

D inhibit cell wall synthesis

84. An acute adverse reaction characterized by "shake and bake" effect may seen with the use of

A quinine

B amphotericin B

C penicillin

D amoxicillin

85. Which of the following is a "resting spore" of fungi?

A chlamydospore

B zygospore

C ascospore

D basidiospore

86. Granulomas with numerous eosinophils suggests

A blastomycosis

B coccidioidomycosis

C aspiration pneumonia

D granulomatosis with polyangitis

E cat-scratch disease

87. Fungus that form blastospores:

A saccharomyces cerevisiae

B cryptococcus neoformans

C candida albicans

D pneumocystis jirovecci

88. An example of asexual spore:

A ascospores

B sporangiospores

C chlamydospores

D basidiospores

89. What differentiates fungi from slime molds?

A spore formation

B plasmodium

C movement

D presence of mitochondria

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Series I-C Model Paper Microbiology

90. Antibiotics can be extracted from all of the following organisms except:

A Fuligo septica

B Aspergillus terreus

C Ganoderma lucidum

D Penicillium patulum

91. Statement which is not true about prokaryotic ribosomes:

A 70S ribosome sediment faster than 80S ribosome

B small subunit contains 20 proteins

C sedimentation coefficient of large subunit is 30S

D has a mass of about 2.5 MDa

92. Consider the following statements about interferon:Statement 1: interferons activate NK cells and macrophagesStatement 2: interferons act as antigen presenting cellsStatement 3: interferon-β1a is used to treat multiple sclerosisWhich of the statements given above are correct?

A 1 and 2

B 2 and 3

C 1 and 3

D 1, 2, and 3

93. Regarding genetic reassortment in viruses, pick the correct statement(s):

A reassortment accelerates the rate of mutations in influenza virus

B occurs exclusively in segmented RNA virus

C reassortment occurs between two influenza virus species A & B

D reassortment occurs through template switch mechanism

94. The vector which acts in mechanical transmission of Japanese encephalitis virus

A Culex titraeniorhynchus

B Aedes aegypti

C Aedes vexans

D Culex vishnui

95. Match the following causative organisms with the disease they cause:

A. Arena virus A. Epizootic hemorrhagic disease

B. Bunyaviridae B. Aseptic meningitis

C. Hantavirus C. Acute hemorrhagic gastroenteritis

D. Nairovirus D. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever

E. Orbivirus E. Hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome

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Series I-C Model Paper Microbiology

96. Which of the following statements regarding Natural killer cells (NK cells) and Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL) aptly distinguish the former with the latter?

A NK cells can act in absence of trigger response from MHC

B NK cells are activated by class I restricted antigens

C CTL expresses CD8 which binds to class I MHC complex

D NK cells are able to produce IFN-α and IL-4

97. Not true about the lysogenic cycle and lytic cycle of Bacteriophage:

A lysogenic cycle is avirulent or temperate

B lytic cycle is characterized by formation of prophage

C in lysogenic cycle, viral genome gets integrated with host DNA

D In lytic cycle, phage DNA integrates into host DNA

98. Match the following items with their correct alternatives:

A. Woronin body A. Candida albicans

B. Aflatoxin B1 B. Histoplasma capsulatum

C. Ergot alkaloids C. Aspergillus flavus

D. Yeast D. Aspergillus fumigatus

E. Dimorphic fungi E. Claviceps purpurea

99. Which one of the following is not an oncogenic virus?

A hepatitis C virus

B adenovirus

C HPV

D Epstein-Barr virus

E HHV8

100. A base triplet of 3'-TAC-5' in antisense DNA strand most likely is:

A 3'-UAG-5' base triplet in mRNA

B 5'-AUG-3' base triplet in mRNA

C a start a codon methionine

D a stop codon in mRNA

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