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  • UNCERTAINTY PART 2

  • A POTENTIAL PROBLEM

    VNM Utility representations have more than ordinal meaning.

    For instance,

    Let A = {a, b, c} with a b c.

    By G3 & G4, there is a unique (0, 1) satisfyingb ( a, (1 ) c).

    Let u be a VNM utility representation of preference ordering %.Then

    u(b) = u(a) + (1 )u(c)

  • A PROBLEM CONTD

    Add (1 )u(b) to both sides of previous equality; we get

    u(a) u(b)u(b) u(c) =

    1

    .

    Such ratio of differences is uniquely determined by But depends only on preferences % (NOT on u)

    Hence, VNM utility representations provide more than ordinal info about indi-

    viduals preferences (or else, the ratio could assume many different values.)

    Question: what is the class of VNM utility representation for a given % ?

  • THEOREM: POSITIVE AFFINE TRANSFORMATIONS

    Suppose that the VNM utility function u represents the preferences %.Then the VNM utility function v also represents % iff for all g G

    v(g) = + u(g), for some scalars R, > 0

    Proof (sufficiency, ): Let v(g) = + u(g) with > 0 for all g G. For any g % h G, v(g) = + u(g) + u(h) = v(h).

    Outline of Proof (necessity, ):Case 1: Degenerate gambles g (1 ai) G for some i = 1, . . . , n.Case 2: Any gamble g G.

  • CASE 1: DEGENERATE GAMBLE g (1 ai)

    Let v represent %. Consider a1 % a2 % . . . % an where a1 an.

    Since u represents %, we have u(a1) u(a2) . . . u(an)Hence, for any ai A, there exists unique i [0, 1] such that:

    u(ai) = iu(a1) + (1 i)u(an) (a convex combination of extrema)

    By EUP: u(i a1, (1 i) an) = iu(a1) + (1 i)u(an) = u(ai) Since u represents % we thus have: ai (i a1, (1 i) an)

    b/c v also represents %

    v(ai) = v((i a1, (1 i) an)) =b/c v has EUP

    iv(a1) + (1 i)v(an).

  • CASE 1 CONTD

    In summary, we have:

    {u(ai) = iu(a1) + (1 i)u(an),v(ai) = iv(a1) + (1 i)v(an).

    Now solve for i: i =u(ai) u(an)u(a1) u(an) =

    v(ai) v(an)v(a1) v(an).

    Hence: [u(ai) u(an)] [v(a1) v(an)] = [v(ai) v(an)] [u(a1) u(an)].

    Now solve for v(ai): v(ai) = + u(ai),

    where :=v(a1) v(an)u(a1) u(an) > 0 and := v(an) u(an).

  • CASE 2: GENERAL GAMBLE g G

    By G6, consider gs (p1 a1, . . . , pn an) g.

    v(g) = v(gs) =ni=1

    piv(ai) (by EUP)

    =ni=1

    pi[ + u(ai)] (by part 1 of the proof)

    = + ni=1

    piu(ai)

    = + u(gs) (by EUP)

    = + u(g). (since u represents %)

    and the proof is done.

  • MEASURING RISK AVERSION

  • TWO ASSUMPTIONS

    1. Consider only simple gambles g = (p1 w1, . . . , pn wn), where wi A = R+ is a wealth level, for i = 1, . . . , n n N with n 0 for all w R+.

  • DEFINITION: EXPECTED VALUE

    For gamble g = (p1 w1, . . . , pn wn):

    expected value of g E[g] =

    ni=1

    piwi

    Hence:

    VNM utility of gamble g: u(g) = ni=1 piu(wi) VNM utility of expected value of g: u(E(g)) = u (ni=1 piwi)

    If g is degenerate (some pi = 1), then E[g] = wi = g = 1 wi.

  • DEFINITION: RISK AVERSION, NEUTRALITY, & LOVE

    Let u be a VNM utility function for simple gambles g over R+.

    For a non-degenerate g the individual is said to be:

    Risk averse at g if u(E(g)) > u(g), Risk neutral at g if u(E(g)) = u(g), Risk loving at g if u(E(g)) < u(g) (=gamble preferred to its expected value).

  • DEFINITION: CONCAVITY

    A function f : D R, D a convex set, is concave iff for all x1, x2 D,

    f (xt) tf (x1) + (1 t)f (x2) for all t [0, 1]

    with xt := tx1 + (1 t)x2, any convex combination of x1 and x2

    If t (0, 1), x1 6= x2 & the inequality holds strictly, then f is strictly concave. x can be a vector of variables.

  • THEOREM: CONCAVITY FOR A DIFFERENTIABLE FUNCTION

    (see Mas Colell et al.)

    The continuously differentiable function f : A R is concave if and only if

    f (x + z) f (x) +Nn=1

    fn(x)zn f (x)+(1N) f (x)

    (N1)z

    for all x A RN and z RN with x + z A.

    The function f is strictly concave if the inequality holds strictly, with z 6= 0.

  • PROOF OF NECESSITY ()

    From definition of concavity:

    f (x + (1 )x) f (x) + (1 )f (x) for all x, x A, (0, 1]

    Let z := x x 6= 0 with z RN . Hence

    f (x + z) f (x + z) + (1 )f (x)

    f (x + z) f (x) + f (x + z) f (x)

    lim0

    f(x+z)f(x) =

    Nn=1

    fn(x)zn using chain rule on f (x1 + z1, . . . , xN + zN)

    and lHospital rule (derivative w.r.t. in num. & den.)

  • PROOF OF SUFFICIENCY ()

    Let y = (1 )x + x be any convex combination of x, x A, (0, 1). Hence: x = y (x x), x = y + (1 )(x x)

    By assumption:

    f (x) = f (y (x x)) f (y)a scalar

    f (y) (x x),f (x) = f (y + (1 )(x x)) f (y) +f (y) (1 )(x x).

    Therefore

    (1)f (x) + f (x) (1 )[f (y)f (y) (x x)] + [f (y) +f (y) (1 )(x x)]= f (y) (1 )f (y) (x x) + f (y) (1 )(x x)= f (y) = f ((1 )x + x)

  • JENSENS INEQUALITY

    Let p n1, and f be a continuous concave function. Then

    f

    (ni=1

    pixi

    )

    ni=1

    pif (xi).

    Proof: By definition of concavity.

    By Jensens inequality,

    the individual is risk

    averse

    neutral

    loving

    iff his VNM utility function is

    strictly concave.

    linear.

    strictly convex.

  • DEFINITIONS

    Consider any simple gamble g over R+.

    Certainty equivalent: an amount wCE R+ offered with certainty s.t.

    u(g) = u(wCE) (= indifferent to lottery g)

    Risk premium: the amount wP R+, s. t.

    u(g) = u(E(g) wP )

    Clearly, wP = E(g) wCE = pw1 + (1 p)w2 wCE

  • EXAMPLE

    Let u(w) = ln(w) with initial wealth w0; u < 0, hence individual is risk averse.

    Let g offer 50-50 odds of winning or losing h (0, w0):

    g = ((1/2) (w0 + h), (1/2) (w0 h))

    E(g) = w0 and wCE satisfies:

    u(wCE) = u(g) =ln(w0 + h) + ln(w0 h)

    2= ln[(w20 h2)

    12 ].

    Thus

    wCE = (w20 h2)12 & wP = E(g) wCE = w0 (w20 h2)

    12 > 0.

  • EXAMPLE: SIMPLE GAMBLE WITH TWO OUTCOMES

    Gamble involving only two outcomes, g = (p w1, (1 p) w2) with w1 < w2

    E(g) = pw1 + (1 p)w2 (Expected value of gamble)

    u(g) = pu(w1) + (1 p)u(w2) (Expected utility from gamble)

    u(E(g)) = u(pw1 + (1 p)w2) (Utility of expected value of gamble)

  • CONCAVITY, CERTAINTY EQUIVALENT,

    AND RISK PREMIUM

    R := (w1, u(w1)), S := (w2, u(w2)) T := pR + (1 p)S = (E(g), u(g))

  • FIGURE: DISCUSSION

    u(E[g]) u(g)=disutility associated w/ risk

    The implicit function of the line going through (x1, y1) and (x2, y2) is:

    (y2 y)x2 x1y2 y1 (x2 x) = 0

    Equation of line going through R and S defined by function

    h(w) =w2u(w1) w1u(w2)

    w2 w1 +u(w2) u(w1)w2 w1 w

    with w = E(g) pw1 + (1 p)w2, i.e., a convex combination of w1, w2.

  • FIGURE: THE MEANING OF THE LINE h(w)

    Hence:

    h(w) = pu(w1) + (1 p)u(w2) = expected utility from gamble g h(w) lies below u(w) (by Jensens inequality)

    Example:

    p = 0 implies w = w1; so, h(w) = u(w1). p = 1 implies w = w2; so, h(w) = u(w2). p = 1/2 implies w = w1 + w2

    2; so h(w) =

    u(w1) + u(w2)

    2.

    Note: the greater the curvature of u the greater the risk premium

  • MEASURES OF RISK AVERSION

    Risk aversion and curvature of VNM utility function u(w) are positively related.

    A natural candidate for such a measure is the second derivative u(w). But u(w) is not invariant to positive affine transformation v(w) = a+ bu(w)

    v(w) = bu(w) 6= u(w), if b > 0 and b 6= 1.

    An invariant measure of risk aversion at point w is as follows.

    Definition: The Arrow-Pratt measure of absolute risk aversion is

    R(w) := u(w)u(w)

    .

  • ABSOLUTE RISK AVERSION

    1. R(w) is

    positive

    zero

    negative

    when the individual is

    risk averse.

    risk neutral.

    risk loving.

    Proof: By Jensens inequality.

    2. R(w) is invariant under positive affine transformations.

    Proof: If v(w) = a + bu(w) for all w 0 and b > 0, then

    v(w)v(w)

    =bu(w)bu(w)

    =u(w)u(w)

    3. Effectiveness: the larger R(w), the lower the certainty equivalent wCE.

  • PROOF OF THE EFFECTIVENESS OF R(w)

    Consider individuals j = 1, 2 and the gamble g = (p1 w1, . . . , pn wn).

    Let uj : R+ R be VNM utility functions with uj > 0 & wCEj R+ satisfy

    uj(wCEj ) =

    ni=1

    piuj(wi) for j = 1, 2 (wCEj = certainty equivalent)

    Must show: if R1(w) > R2(w) for all w 0, then wCE1 < wCE2 . Define h : R R+ with h(y) = u1(u12 (y)).

    (w = u12 (y) is the inverse function of y = u2(w))

    Since uj > 0 for all j & R1(w) > R2(w), h > 0 & h < 0 (do the algebra)(recall: the derivative of u12 (y) is

    1u2(u

    12 (y))

    )

  • PROOF OF THE EFFECTIVENESS

    Idea: u1(w) = h(y) = h(u2(w)), with h concave (= u1 is concavification of u2).

    More precisely,

    u1(wCE1 ) =

    ni=1

    piu1(wi) =

    from Jensens inequality ni=1

    pih(u2(wi)) < h

    (ni=1

    piu2(wi)

    )

    = h(u2(wCE2 )) = u1(w

    CE2 )

    Since u1 > 0, we have the desired result.

  • DECREASING ABSOLUTE RISK AVERSION (DARA)

    R(w) is only a local measure of risk aversion (around w).

    The Arrow-Pratt measure varies with wealth.

    Decreasing absolute risk aversion (DARA)

    Individual is less averse to taking small risks at higher levels of wealth.

    Example: u(c) = log c

    u(c) =1

    c u(c) = 1

    c2 u

    (c)

    u(c)=

    1

    c

    (for increasing ARA consider u(c) = cac2

    )

  • CONSTANT ABSOLUTE RISK AVERSION (CARA) FUNCTIONS

    Constant absolute risk aversion (CARA)

    The individual is equally averse to risks at all levels of wealth.

    Example: exponential function u(c) = eac with a > 0

    Then at all c > 0 we have

    u(c) = aeac u(c) = a2eac u(c)u(c)

    = a

  • RELATIVE RISK AVERSION

    u(c)u(c)

    c

    Example of constant relative risk aversion (CRRA) function

    u(c) =c1 1

    1 , 0

    u(c) = c u(c) = c1 u(c)u(c)

    c =

  • Log and linear functions are also CRRA:

    Log : u(c) = ln c u(c)u(c)

    c = 1

    Linear : u(c) = bc u(c) = b & u(c) = 0

    u(c)u(c)

    c = 0

    Consumers with linear preferences are risk neutral:

    gamble gu(g) = u(

    expected value of gE[g] )

  • EXAMPLE

  • AN INVESTORS PROBLEM

    Optimally allocate s [0, w] of initial wealth w > 0 in a risky asset Asset has rate of return ri R with probability pi, i = 1, . . . , n. Investor has VNM preferences u with u < 0 (Risk-averse)

    Will the investor invest something?

    Solution: Choose s to maximize the expected utility of wealth

    maxs0

    (ni=1

    piu(w + sri) + (w s).)

    FOC : F (s, w) :=ni=1

    piu(w + sri)ri 0 & complementary slackness

  • OPTIMAL DECISION

    Study FOC at s = 0

    Ifni=1piri 0, then s = 0 since F (0, w) = u(w)

    ni=1 piri 0

    Ifni=1piri > 0, then s

    > 0 since F (0, w) = u(w)n

    i=1 piri > 0

    Note: S.O.C.:ni=1piu(w + sri)r2i < 0 for all s.

    Note: In interior solution = 0 < s < w with F (s, w) = 0

  • DECISION MAKING

    Consider interior solution. Under DARA:

    ds

    dw= Fw(s

    , w)Fs(s, w)

    =

    ni=1piu(w + sri)ri

    ni=1piu(w + sri)r2i

    > 0.

    To see this,DARA

    R(w)ri > R(w + sri)ri = u

    (w + sri)u(w + sri)

    ri

    R(w)riu(w + sri) > u(w + sri)ri

    0 =

    Expectation of LHS R(w)

    ni=1

    piriu(w + sri)

    by F.O.C.

    >

    Expectation of RHS

    ni=1

    piu(w + sri)ri