MCQs in Microbiology
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Transcript of MCQs in Microbiology
Ω
MicrobiologyBasic Medical Science Email:[email protected]
Time: 40 mins Total Marks: 50 | Pass Marks: 30
MICROBIOLOGYPlease use a dark pencil/pen to complete the test. Read the instructions at the begining carefully. This is a Sample Test Paper for practice.
Please Note: There is a Negative Marking of (-1) for each incorrect response.
1. Mycosis infection that is caused due to minor trauma to the skin from thorns or splinters:
A coccidioidomycosis
B actinomycetemcomitans
C blastomycosis
D chromoblastomycosis
2. Inclusion body which is diagnostic of Granuloma inguinale:
A Hansemann cells
B Donovan bodies
C Medler bodies
D Russell bodies
3. Which of the following is not true about Orthomyxovirus?
A belongs to family of RNA virus
B causative agent of influenza
C belongs to family of DNA virus
D picornavirus
4. Influenza virus A strain that was responsible for causing 1968-1969 pandemic Hong Kong flu
A H3N2
B H1N1
C H2N2
D H3N8
5. Presence of which of the following inclusion bodies is diagnostic of Sarcoidosis?
A Schaumann bodies
B Mikulicz's cells
C Michaelis-Gutmann bodies
D Dutcher bodies
6. Match the following inclusion bodies with their characteristic diseases/disorders:
A. Heinz bodies A. measles
B. Cabots ring B. adenovirus
C. acidophilic Cowdry Type A C. herpes simplex virus
D. basophilic Cowdry Type B D. abnormal hemoglobin precipitation
E. Warthin finkeldey bodies E. megaloblastic anemia
Basic Medical Sciences - 1 -
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Microbiology
7. Mechanism of action of erythromycin:
A blocking DNA biosynthesis
B blocking cell wall biosynthesis
C blocking protein biosynthesis 30S ribosome
D blocking protein biosynthesis 50S ribosome
8. Pick the incorrect statements about Osteocalcin
A collagenous protein in bone
B serum levels indicate osteoblast activities
C depends on Vitamin D
D methods of detection is immunoassay
9. Elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is found in
A viral hepatitis
B obstructive jaundice
C myocardial infarction
D muscular dystrophy
10. Elevated levels of leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) is found in
A chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)
B aplastic anemia
C paroxysmal noctural hemoglobinuria (PNH)
D acute myelogenous leukaemia (AML)
11. Infections which cause leukemoid reaction
A Epstein-Barr virus infection
B histoplasmosis
C psittacosis
D systemic lupus erythematosus
12. What is not true of strict (obligate) anaerobes?
A lack superoxide dismutase and catalase
B peptococcus anaerobius are intolerant to oxygen
C Escherichia coli is an example of strict anaerobe
D gather at the bottom of a tube of thioglycollate broth
13. Test tubes and glasswares are sterilized by
A autoclave
B pressure sterilization
C moist heat sterilization
D hot air oven
14. Rheological properties of food concerns with
A sterilization of food
B consistency, texture and fluidity of food
C preventing growth of bacteria and fungi during preservation of food
D fortification and enrichment of food
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Microbiology
15. Which of the following statements is not true regarding reoviruses?
A include rotaviruses which cause gastroenteritis in humans
B icosahedral double stranded linear RNA
C icosahedral single stranded linear RNA
D belongs to flavivirus families which cause dengue fever
16. What is true about rhabdoviruses?
A causative agent of Rat bite fever
B β-adrenergic receptors act as host cell surface protein viral receptor
C genome is linear double stranded positive-sense RNA
D genome is linear single stranded negative-sense RNA
17. What is not true about actinomycetes?
A fungi that closely resemble bacteria
B have high G+C content in their genome
C form branching filaments and hyphae
D produce asexual spores or conidiospores
18. Which of the following is true regarding madura mycosis?
A granulomatous infection of the skin that involves bone and muscles
B maduramycosis due to bacteria is caused by Leptosphaeria
C treatment of actinomycetoma is primarily surgical
D maduramycosis due to fungi is caused by Nocardia
19. Pathogen which is an important cause of toxic shock syndrome:
A staphylococcus saprophyticus
B staphylococcus aureus
C staphylococcus epidermidis
D streptococcus viridans
20. Which of the following is a coagulase negative species?
A yersinia pestis
B staphylococcus aureus
C staphylococcus epidermidis
D staphylococcus intermedius
21. Pick the incorrect statements about N. gonorrheae
A human antibodies IgM are directed against gonococcal antigenic side chains
B characterized by lipopolysaccharide O antigenic side chains
C unencapsulated gram-negative non-motile diplococcus
D encapsulated gram-positive motile diplococcus
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Microbiology
22. Which of the following organisms produces a metal-independent IgA specific serine endopeptidase?
A Streptococcus pneumoniae
B Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C Haemophilus influenzae
D all of the above
23. Match the incubation periods with their correct diseases:
A. Mumps A. 9 - 12 days
B. Chicken pox B. 9 - 21 days
C. Measles C. 14 - 18 days
D. Pertussis (Whooping cough) D. 7 - 14 days
E. Roseola E. 5 - 15 days
24. Gonococci has developed resistance against all of the following drugs except:
A quinolones
B penicillin
C ceftriaxone
D spectinomycin
25. Most common cause of non-gonococcal urethritis which is not caused by bacteria
A chlamydia trachomatis
B herpes simplex virus
C tichomonas vaginalis
D ureaplasma urealyticam
26. Typhoid fever is characterized by all of the following laboratory findings except:
A serum ALT:LDH ratio >9:1
B increased ESR
C leukopenia
D serum ALT:LDH ratio <9:1
27. Incubation period of dengue fever is
A 5 - 15 days
B 3 - 14 days
C 5 - 10 days
D 7 - 14 days
28. Drugs which can cause leukopenia
A lithium
B clozapine
C corticosteroids
D clonazepam
29. What is not true about Small pox (variola)?
A belongs to genus orthopoxviridae
B genome is linear double-stranded DNA
C genome is linear single-stranded DNA
D presence of Guarnieri bodies
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Microbiology
30. Which of the following is not true about inclusion bodies
A Levinthal-Coles-Lillie inclusion bodies pathognomic of psittacosis
B Torres bodies are characteristic of Yellow fever
C Howell-Jolly bodies characteristic of Molluscum contagiosum
D represent sites of bacterial growth and multiplication
31. Second most common malignancy in AIDS patients
A Kaposi's sarcoma
B Burkitt's lymphoma
C Hodgkin's lymphoma
D Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
32. Which capsular antigen component of S. enterica serotype of S.typhi reduces the expression of neutrophil chemoattractant in host cells?
A Pili antigen
B Vi antigen
C Flagellar antigen
D K5 capsular polysaccharide
33. Dane particle is characteristic of which Hepatitis virus?
A Hepatitis B
B Hepatitis C
C Infectious hepatitis
D Hepatitis D
34. What is the primary reason behind scarcity of neutrophils in intestines of patients with typhoid fever?
A capsule mediated stimulation of TLR dependent IL-10 production
B capsule mediated reduction of TLR dependent IL-11 production
C enhanced IL-8 production in intestinal mucosa
D depressed IL-8 production in intestinal mucosa
35. Presence of anti HBe antibodies in patients indicates:
A patients have recovered from hepatitis B infection
B high infectivity
C late convalescence
D bad prognosis
36. Which of the following statements is not true about Sphingomyelin?
A contains ceramide
B phosphatidylethanolamine reacts with ceramide to form sphingomyelin
C can serve as a precursor of glycolipids
D essential component of myelin of nerve fibers
37. Treatment of choice for hydatid cyst in liver
A thiabendazole
B praziquantel
C albendazole
D all of the above
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Microbiology
38. Match the following:
A. strongyloides stercoralis A. urinary schistosomiasis
B. schistosoma haematobium B. biliary obstruction and cholangitis
C. schistosoma mansoni C. hyperinfection syndrome
D. clonorchis sinensis D. intestinal schistosomiasis
39. Organ which is most commonly the site of hydatid cyst infection:
A peritoneum
B lungs
C brain
D liver
40. Which of the following is a treponemal blood test?
A TPHA
B RPR
C USR test
D VDRL
41. Helminthic autoinfections in humans is seen with
A Schistosoma mansoni
B Enterobius vermicularis
C Strongyloides stercoralis
42. Virus shedding does not occur in
A herpes zoster (VZV) infection
B rabies infection
C herpes simplex viral infection
D poliomyelitis infection
43. The most frequently used approach for the laboratory diagnosis of syphilis:
A Wasserman test
B MHA-TP test
C VDRL
D FTA-ABS
44. Drug that can be used for treatment of molluscum contagiosum:
A artemesinin
B calamine lotion
C salvinorin A
D cantharidin
45. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect about chicken pox virus?
A also called herpes simplex virus type 1
B also called herpes virus type 3 (HHV-3)
C aspirin can be used to reduce fever in chicken pox
D genome is linear dsRNA duplex
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Microbiology
46. Match the following pathogens (viruses) with the diseases they cause:
A. Human herpes virus type1 (HHV-1)
A. infectious mononucleosis
B. Varicella zoster virus (VZV) B. herpes gladiatorum
C. Human pappiloma virus (HPV) C. genital herpes
D. Human herpes virus type 2 (HHV-2)
D. shingles
E. Human herpes virus type 4 (HHV-4)
E. genital warts
47. A nontreponemal screening test for syphilis
A Wasserman test
B Kahn test
C VDRL
D TP particle agglutination assay (TPPA)
48. Which of the following statements about mycobacterium is not true?
A anaerobic, motile, nonencapsulated, nonsporing
B aerobic, nonmotile, nonencapsulated, nonsporing
C acid fast due to presence of mycolic acid
D catalase-positive test is used to differentiate tubercle bacilli from atypical mycobacteria
49. Which of the following parasites do not have an intermediate host (IH)?
A onchocerca volvulus
B Ascaris lumbricoides
C ancyclostoma duodenale
D Trichinella spiralis
50. Match the parasitic diseases with their mode of transmission:
A. Onchocerciasis A. uncooked fish
B. Strongyloidiasis B. uncooked pork
C. Opisthorchiasis C. uncooked beef
D. Taenia saginata D. through skin
E. Taenia solium E. bite of black fly Simulium
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