BSNL JTO (Junior Telecom Officer)- 2010 · BSNL JTO (Junior Telecom Officer)- 2010 Q.1 A house...
Transcript of BSNL JTO (Junior Telecom Officer)- 2010 · BSNL JTO (Junior Telecom Officer)- 2010 Q.1 A house...
BSNL JTO (Junior Telecom Officer)- 2010
Q.1 A house served by a 220V supply light, is protected by a 9-Ampere fuse.
The maximum number of 60 W bulbs in parallel that can be turned on is
(a) 11 (b) 33
(c) 22 (d) 44
Q.2 An n-channel JFET has IDSS = 1 μA & VP =–5V. The maximum
transconductance is
(a) gm = 0.4 milli mho (b) gm = 0.04milli mho
(c) gm = 0.04 mho (d) gm = 0.4 millimilli mho
Q.3 The base to base resistance of a UJT is 6 K Ohm when the emitter current is
zero. If RB1 = 3.6 K Ohm, the intrinsic stand off ratio is
(a) n = 0.66 (b) n = 0.6
(c) n = 6.0 (d) n = 3.6
Q.4 A capacitor of 1μF initially charged to 10 V is connected across an ideal
inductor of 0.1 mH. The maximum current in the circuit is
(a) 0.5 A (b) 1 A
(c) 1.5 A (d) 2 A
Q.5 Silicon has a preference in IC technology because
(a) it is an indirect semiconductor
(b) it is a covalent semiconductor
(c) it is an elemental semiconductor
(d) of the availability of nature oxide SiO
Q.6 Three equal resistance of magnitude 5 Ohm each are connected in delta.
The resistance between any two pair of terminals of the delta will be
(a) 5 Ohm (b) 5/3 Ohm
(c) 10/3 Ohm (d) 3/5 Ohm
Q.7 The R.M.S. value of a half wave rectified sinusoidal alternating current with
peak value Im is
(a) Im/1 (b) mI / 2
(c) mI /2 (d) mI 3
Q.8 For a series resonant circuit, at the half power points,which of the following
is true?
(a) Current is half of the current at resonance.
(b) Resistance is equal to the reactance.
(c) The impedance is half the impedance at the resonance.
(d) None of the above
Q.9 The lossless line of characterstics impedance 300 Ohm is terminated in a
pure resistance of 200 Ohm. The value of the standing wave ratio is
(a) 1.5 (b) 0.67
(c) 1.0 (d) 1.25
Q.10 The transient current in lossless L-C circuit when excited from an AC
source is, sine wave
(a) Critically damped (b) Underdamped
(c) Overdamped (d) Undamped
Q.11 The values of L and C for a low pass filter with cut off frequency of 2.5 KHz
and operating with a terminated load resistance of 450 Ohm are given by
(a) 57.3 mH; 0.283 μF (b) 28.66 μH; 0.14 μF
(c) 114.64 mH; 0.566 mF (d) 50.23 mH; 0.632 mF
Q.12 The driving point impedance with poles at ? = 0(zero) and ? = 8 (infinity)
must have the
(a) s term in the denominator and an excess term in the numerator
(b) s term in the numerator and an excess term in the denominator
(c) s term in the numerator and equal number of terms in the
numerator and denominator
(d) s term in the denominator and equal number of terms in the
numerator and denominator
Q.13 A transmission line is terminated at its characterstic impedance. The
reflection coefficent is
(a) 1 (b) –1
(c) 0 (d) 8
Q.14 In the circuit shown below, the current through the 3/11O resistance
between terminals A & B is
(a) 4 Amps (b) 1 Amp
(c) 2 Amps (d) 5 Amps
Q.15 In a series RLC circuit operating below the resonant frequency the current
(a) I leads Vs (b) I lags Vs
(c) I is in Phase with Vs (d) None of these
Q.16 An antenna has maximum radiation intensity Umax = 10 Watt/Sr and
average radiation intensity Uavg = 4.5 Watt/Sr. If the efficiency of the antenna
is given as ?r = 95%, the input power of the antenna is
(a) 2.222 Watt (b) 12.11 Watt
(c) 55.55 Watt (d) 59.52 Watt
Q.17 In an airport, a receiving, antenna has a maximum dimension of 3 metres
and operates at 100 MHz. An aircraft approaching the airport is 1/2 Km away
from the antenna . The aircraft is in the region of the antenna.
(a) far-field (b) near-field
(c) close-field (d) Out of reach
Q.18 A lossless transmission line with characterstic impedance 500 Ohms is
excited by a signal of voltage 10?0° volts at 1.2 MHz. If the line is terminated
by ZL at a distance 1 Km, the input impedance s of the line for ZL = 8 (infinity)
and ZL = 0 (zero) in Ohm, respectively are
(a) +j8, 0 (b) –j8, 0
(c) 0, – j8 (d) 0, +j8
Q.19 If the electric field of a plane wave is represented by E = 10 yˆ cos (109
t+30z) volt/m, assuming e is the dielectric constant, the corresponding
magnetic field H is
(a) – ˆy e 109/3 cos (109 t + 30z) Amp/m
(b) – ˆx e109/3 cos(109t + 30z) Amp/m
(c) – ˆz e 109/3 cos (109t + 30 z) Amp/m
(d) + ˆx e 109/3 cos (109t+30z) Amp/m
Q.20 A 50 Ohm lossless line connects a signal of 200 KHz to a load of 200 Ohm.
If the load power in 100 mW, the value for voltage minimum Vmin is
(a) ( 20)/4 (b) ( 10)/ 4
(c) ( 20)/ 2 (d) ( 10)/ 2
Q.21 Choose the correct statement
(a) Digital multimeters are built using current measuring elements, while analog
multimeters are built using voltage measuring units
(b) Digital multimeters are built using voltage measuring units, while analog multimeters
are built using current measuring units
(c) Both digital and analog multimeters are built using voltage measuring units
(d) Both digital and analog multimeters are built using current measuring units
Q.22 An analog voltmeter has a sensitivity of 10kO/volt. The galvanometer
used in constructing the instrument will produce a full scale deflection when
the current passed through it is
(a) 10 mA (b) 20 mA
(c) 50 mA (d) 100 μA
Q.23 The input versus output characteristics of a digital-to-analog converter is
given in the table below: The converter is exhibiting
(a) offset error (b) statistical error
(c) linearity error (d) hysteresis error
Q.24 An optical fiber cable laid underground has developed a discontinuity at a
distance d from the source end. The fault can be located using the instrument
(a) Optical spectrum Analyzer (OSA)
(b) Optical Time Domain Reflectometer (OTDR)
(c) Optical Power Meter (OPM)
(d) Laser Diffractometer (LD)
Q.25 Two sinusoidal signals of the same frequency are displayed on a dualtrace
oscilloscope. One complete cycle of each signal covers 6 cm of the
horizontal scale and the starting point of the horizontal scale and the starting
point of the two signals are separated by 0.5 cm. The phase difference between
the two signals in degrees is
(a) 30 (b) 45
(c) 60 (d) 90
Q.26 Transient signals can be observed using
(a) storage oscillocope (b) sampling oscilloscope
(c) wave analyzer (d) spectrum analayzer
Q.27 The trace on an oscilloscope continually moves to the right of the screen
when
(a) the sweep is triggered.
(b) the sweep period is larger than the signal period.
(c) the sweep period is smaller than the signal period.
(d) there is no weep.
Q.28 In a dual trace oscilloscope, the display appears segmented when
(a) low frequency signals are observed in Alternate mode
(b) low frequency signals are observed in Chop mode
(c) high frequency signals are observed in Alternate mode
(d) high frequency signals are observed in Chop mode
Q.29 To distinguish between signals having very close values, we need an
instrument with
(a) high accuracy (b) high resolution
(c) high sensitivity (d) high linearity
Q.30 Match List-I (Instruments) with List-II (Measurement in which the
instrument is used) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Lock-in amplifier 1. Patient monitoring
B. Sampling oscillocope 2. Overcoming ground loop problem
C. Isolation amplifier 3. Phase difference between two signals
D. Strip-chart recorder 4. Signal recovery from noise 5. Observing very high
frequency signals
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 5 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 5 2 1
(d) 3 4 1 2
Q. 31 A power diode has lightly doped n type substrate sandwiched between
heavily doped p and n regions
(a) to increase reverse breakdown voltage
(b) to reduce ohmic loss under forward bias
(c) to decrease switching time of the power diode
(d) to improve transient behaviour of the diode
Q.32 An ideal thyristor is driving an R-L load of impedance Z. Input AC voltage
is Vs = Vm sin ?mt. If thyristor is fired at an input phase angle of 90°. What will
be the output voltage and output current across R-L load at the instant of
firing?
(a) Output voltage is Vm and output current is Vm/Z
(b) Output voltage and output current are both zero
(c) Output voltage is zero and output current is delayed by an angle 90°
(d) Output voltage is Vm and output current is zero
Q.33 In a regenerative braking, which of the following is generally true?
(a) Back e.m.f. in the motor exceeds the applied voltage
(b) Back e.m.f. is less than the applied voltage
(c) Kinetic energy of the motor is dissipated in a resistance
(d) Kinetic energy of the motor is dissipated through free wheeling
diode across the motor
Q.34 A step-down chopper, fed from a 120 volt DC source, operates a DC motor
whose armature e.m.f. and armature resistance are 100 volt and 0.5O
respectively. With the magnitude control ratio 0.6, the quadrant of operation
DC motor is
(a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Fourth
Q.35 For IGBT, which of the following statement is true?
(a) Switching speed of IGBT is more than bipolar transistor
(b) IGBT is a current-controlled device
(c) On-state collector-emitter voltage is less than that of bipolar junction transistor
(d) It combines voltage control features of MOSFET gate and high power capability of
bipolar transistor
Q.36 The semiconductor used for LEDs emitting in the visible range is
(a) GaAs (b) GaAlAs
(c) GalnAs (d) GaAsP
Q.37 The polar bonds existing in III-V compound semicondutor, may be
considered as equivalent to
(a) 1 ionic bond and 3 covalent bonds
(b) 1 ionic bond and 4 covalent bonds
(c) 2 ionic bonds and 2 covalent bonds
(d) 2 ionic bonds and 4 covalent bonds
Q.38 Which of the following pairs of crystal structure possesses the same
atomic packing density?
(a) simple cubic & body centred cubic
(b) body centred cubic & face centred cubic
(c) face centered cubic & hexagonal close packed
(d) body centred cubic & hexagonal close packed
Q.39 The colour bands on a carbon composition resistor occur in the sequence:
yellow, violet, yellow and silver. Its resistance is
(a) 470 KO ± 47 KO (b) 470 KO ± 23.5 %
(c) 47 KO ± 10 % (d) 47 KO ± 5 %
Q.40 The real & imaginary dielectric constants er’ and er” of 3 insulators at 1
KHz and 50° C are listed below:
Material er’ er”
Polycarbonate 2.47 0.003
PET 2.58 0.003
PEEK 2.24 0.003
At a given voltage, the lower power dissipation per unit capacitance at 1 KHz
can be obtained from
(a) Polycarbonate
(b) PET
(c) PEEK
(d) Insufficient information to answer
Q.41 A battery of 40 V and three capacitors of 1000 μF, 500 μF and 100 μF are
all connected in (I) parallel and (II) series. The ratio of total charge stored in
case I to that in case II is approximately
(a) 3 : 64 (b) 64 : 3
(c) 160 : 3 (d) 104 : 5
Q.42 The magnetic flux f ( in Weber) linked with a coil at an instant of time t(in
second) is given by f(t) = 2t2 – 20t + 40. The induced e.m.f. in the coil at the
instant t =2 second is
(a) 22 V (b) 20 V
(c) 12 V (d) 10 V
Q.43 The speed of an audio cassette tape in a cassette player is 5cm/ sec. If
the maximum frequency that needs to be recorded is 20 KHz, the minimum
spatial wavelength on the tape is
(a) 40 μm (b) 25 μm
(c) 4 μm (d) 2.5 μm
Q.44 In a power transformer, the fundamental frequency of the hum arising
due to magnetostriction is
(a) equal to the line frequecy
(b) double the line frequency
(c) 4 times the line frequency
(d) not related to the line frequecny
Q.45 At a particular temperature and current density, the critical magnetic field
for a Type I superconductor is Bc and that for a type II superconductor ranges
from Bc1 to Bc2 keeping other parameters unloaded. both superconductors are
now subjected to a magnetic field B that satisfies the conditions B>Bc and
Bc1 < q =”4q9,” x =”d3″ q =”–4q9,” x =”dQ4=”" q =”–4q9,” x =”d3″ q =”–
4q9,” x =”d4″ gap =” 1.1″ charge =” 1.6″ a =” 0.99,” ib =” lB” icbo =” 200″ ic
=” 2.5″ ic =” 1.5mA” ic =” 3.5″ ic =” 4.5″ 1 =” A.Qn” 1 =” A.Qn+” 1 =” A.Qn” 1
=” A.Qn” k =” 0,” n =” (no.” mp =” 1.15.” x =” P.Q” y=”P.R” i0 =” X,” i1=” 0,”
i2 =” X,” i3 =” X” i0 =” 0,” i1=”1,” i2 =” Y,” i3 =” X” i0 =” X,” i1 =” 1,” i2 =”
0,” i3 =” X” i0 =” X,” i1 =” 0,” i2 =” X,” i3 =” Z” k =” 0.” dt =” Ax(t)” a =”–2″ b
=”10″ a =”0″ b =”0″ fc =” 0.16″ d =” 0.5456″ n =” 31.6″
(a) > 100 (b) > 500
(c) > 1000 (d) > 20000
Q.67 In an IF amplifier, the IF transformer is provided with tapping to
(a) increase the voltage gain
(b) increase the bandwidth of the resonance circuit
(c) increse the impedance offered by the resonance circuit to the following cascaded
amplifier
(d) increase the quality factor of the resonance circuit
Q.68 Consider the wave form V(t) = (1+m cos?mt) cos?ct. Show that, if the
demodulated wave is to follow the envelope of V(t), it is required that at any
time t0
(a) RC <=?m(msin?mt0 ) / (1+mcos?m t0)
(b) (I/RC) >= ?m(msin?mt0 ) / (1+mcos?m t0 )
(c) 1/RC <= 1/(m?m)
(d) RC is very large
Q.69 QPSK system is superior to BPSK system because
(a) its bandwidth is higher than that of BPSK System
(b) interchannel interference in QPSK system is less then that in BPSK system
(c) bandwidth of QPSK system is half of the bandwidth of BPSK system
(d) in QPSK system inter-symbol interference is inproved
Q.70 A radio receiver is placed at one corner of a table and again placed at
some other corner of the same table. Loudspeaker output is changed because
(a) image interference is reduced
(b) adjacent channel interference is increased
(c) of fading
(d) line of sight propagation is not utilized
Q.71 In time-division multiple access system, a traffic system on the receiver
side must receive the traffic burst addressed to it. For this
(a) transmitting frame acquisition is required
(b) proper synchronization of the timing of transmit frame is required
(c) frame efficiency should be higher
(d) synchronization is necessary to overcome the perturbations of the satellite
Q.72 Earth coverage dish antenna is used in satellite system. It is characterized
by the fact that
(a) It is a narrow beam antenna
(b) It is Parabolic antenna
(c) it is sharply focused within a small area of the surface of the earth
(d) it is a wide angle antenna which covers a large area of the surface of the earth
Q.73 In a Klystron amplifier, the RF voltage produces
(a) amplitude modulation (b) frequecny modulation
(c) phase modulation (d) velocity modulation
Q.74 For the proper operation of MASER at a frequency of 10 GHz, the material
used is
(a) Al2 O3 with slight doping of chromium
(b) Ti O2 with slight doping of iron
(c) Ti O2 with slight doping of chromium
(d) Al2 O3 with slight doping of iron
Q.75 A rectangular waveguide is 4.2 cm by 1.85 cm. The cut-off frequency of
the dominant mode through this waveguide is
(a) 3.57 GHz (b) 3.75 GHz
(c) 3.70 MHz (d) 3.57 MHz
Q.76 For an antenna to be frequency-independent, it should expand or contract
in proportion to the
(a) gain (b) directivity
(c) wavelength (d) impedance
Q.77 Suppose that data items, numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 come in the input
stream in this order. By using a queue, which of the following rearrangement
can be obtained in the output order ?
(a) 1 2 6 4 5 3 (b) 2 4 3 6 5 1
(c) 4 2 1 3 5 6 (d) 1 2 3 4 5 6
Q.78 We are told that the integers between 1 and 1000 are arranged in a binary
search trace with ‘<‘ as the ordering relation. Below are four lists of vertices
encountered as we search for the number 363. Which list cannot be produced
by this search through a binary search tree?
(a) 924, 220, 911, 244, 898, 248, 363
(b) 2, 252, 401, 398, 330, 344, 397, 363
(c) 925, 202, 911, 240, 912, 245, 363
(d) 2, 399, 387, 219, 266, 382, 381, 278, 363
Q.79 The number of 1’s in the binary representation of 13* 163 +11*16 + 2 is
(a) 8 (b) 7
(c) 9 (d) 12
Q.80 A disk has 500 bytes/sector,100 sectors / track, 20 heads and 1000
cylinders. Total capacity of disk is
(a) 1 GB (b) 100 MB
(c) 10 MB (d) 10 GB
Q.81 Suppose that the same clock signal is used to increment the microprogram
counter and to load the control register. Which of the following asseration(s)
is/are true?
1. Microinstruction execution time is at least two clock periods.
2. Microinstruction exceution time can be overlapped with fetching the next
microinstruction.
3. Unconditional branch microinstructions must necessarily take longer than
other types.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
Q.82 Some system architects do not find RISC instruction repertoire to be costeffective
because it
(a) result in large increase in programme size
(b) result in complex structure of microcode
(c) has been observed that an average compiler does not employ more than a limited
subset of available instructions
(d) results in complex decoding of opcode filed resulting in longer execution time
Q.83 A stake machine pushes operands on a stack and evaluates binary
operators by a pcs (i.e pop/compute/store) where the top two operands are
popped computation is performed and the result is pushed onto stack.
Evaluation of an expression (x* y) + (u* ?) by Reverse Polish notation in a
stack machine needs
(a) 4 push and 3 pcs instructions
(b) 6 push and 1 pcs instructions
(c) 4 push and 1 pcs instructions
(d) 5 push and 2 pcs instructions
Q.84 A dot matrix printer takes 3 msec to point a character, and 1 msec for a
space between two consecutive characters. If it prints 100 characters per line,
its printing speed specifications in characters per second (cps) and time to
print a line of characters are respectively
(a) 100 cps and 400 msec
(b) 2500 cps and 0.04 sec
(c) 250 cps and 40 msec
(d) 250 cps and 0.4 sec
Q.85 Consider the following program segment with 8085 microprocessor
LXI H 3600H
MOV A, M
HLT
The MOV instruction involves
(a) indirect addressing
(b) immediate addressing
(c) implicit addressing
(d) direct addressing
Q.86 To establish a communication between 8085 microprocessor and 8255
Programmable Peripheral Interface chip. the status of the chip select input
would be
(a) TRISTATE (b) HIGH
(b) LOW (d) DON’T CARE
Q.87 Which flag does not change by the execution of the instruction DCR B in
8085 microprocessor ?
(a) Parity (b) Carry
(c) Zero (d) Sign
Q.88 Let the content of the memory location 3501H be 72H. Now consider the
following program with 8085 microprocessor
LDA 3501H
CMA
STA 3502H
HLT
The content of the memory location 3502H after execution of
programme will be
(a) 27H (b) D8H
(c) 8DH (d) 72H
Q.89 Given the program segment below, how many times will the instruction
LP: JNZ REP be executed?
MVI H, 02H
MVI L, 05H
REP : DCR L
LP : JNZ REP
: DCR H
: JNZ REP
……………….
(a) 10 (b) 260
(c) 510 (d) 7
Q.90 What addressing mode is used in the instruction RET?
(a) Direct (b) Immediate
(c) Implicit (d) Register-indirect
Q.91 A one-byte instruction is executed in the 8085 microprocessor by the
following steps:
((SP) –1) ? (PCH)
((SP) –2) ? (PCL)
((SP) ? ((SP)-2)
(PC) ? 0008H
The corresponding instruction is
(a) JMP 0008H (b) PUSH PSW
(c) CALL 0008 H (d) RST 1
Q.92 The zero flag of 8085 microprocessor is to be set keeping the content of
the accumulator unchanged. Which instruction is to be used?
(a) MOV A,A (b) ANI 00H
(c) XRA A (d) CMP A
Q.93 In class – A power amplifier, the collector dissipation is maximum when
(a) no signal is present
(b) signal swing is maximum
(c) signal swing is (1/1.414) of its maximum
(d) none of the above
Q.94 If cut-in voltage and forward resistance of each diode (in the adjoining
figure) are 0.7 V and 1 ohm respectively, the current through the 48 ohm
resistor is
8 V
+ 48 O
–
(a) 132 mA (b) 160 mA
(c) 0 mA (a) (1/6) A
Q.95 The lower cut-off frequency of the transistor stage in the adjoining figure
is
Vcc
3 K
10 μF
V0
2 K
(a) 7.95 Hz (b) 13.25 Hz
(c) 5.30 Hz (d) 3.18 Hz
Q.96 In the adjoining current mirror circuit if Q1 and Q2 are identical and base
currents are not neglected, then which of the following is true ?
I1 I2
Q1 Q2
(a) I2 = I1 (b) I2 = ßl1
(c) I2 = [(ß/(ß +2)]I1 (d) I2 = [(ß + 2)/ß]I1
Q.97 If rectangular input is applied to the adjoining circuit, it produces
R
C
I/P O/P –
+
(a) square output (b) spike output
(c) sinusoidal output (d) none of the above
Q.98 In an oscillator, if amplifier gain (A) without feedback is (1 + RF/ R1) and
gain (ß) of the feedback network is 1/{3 + j(?Rc–1/?Rc)}, then which of the
following is true ?
(a) RF = 2R1 (b) RF = R1
(a) |ß| = 3 (b) |ß| = 1/3
1. The main scale of a vernier calliper is ruled in
1 mm units. The vernier scale is 49 mm long
and divided in 50 units. The resolution of the
vernier calliper is
a. 0.002 mm
b. 0.005 mm
c. 0.01 mm
d. 0.02 mm
2. A frequency counter with a gating time of 50
ms counts 1254 cycles of an input square
wave. The frequency of the input wave is
a. 39.87 Hz
b. 62.70 Hz
c. 1.254 kHz
d. 25.08 kHz
3. A data acquisition system with the input range
of ± 5.0 V has a 12-bit ADC in it. The
resolution of the system is approximately
a. 0.24 mV
b. 0.48 mV
c. 1.22 mV
d. 2.44 mV
4. Wattmeters are based on the principle of
a. permanent magnet moving coil meter
b. electrodynamic meter
c. electrostatic meter
d. moving iron meter
5. The resolution of a Gray-coded optical shaft
encoder with 10-bit output is approximately
a. 0.098°
b. 0.176°
c. 0.225°
d. 0.352°
3 3 2
2 3
e s Y s
s s
is
7. The undamped natural frequency in rad/s and
the damping ratio of the system with the
2
2
64
12 100
G s s
s s
are,
respectively,
a. 10 and 1.2
b. 10 and 0.6
c. 8 and 1.2
d. 8 and 0.75
8. The gain at the breakaway point of the root
locus along the real axis of a unity feedback
system with the transfer function
G s K
s s
is
a. K = 0
b. K = 0.5
c. K = 1
d. K = 1.25
9. Gain margin of the unity feedback system with
100
1
G s
s
is
a. 35.35
b. 12.5
c. 0.08
d. 0.03
10. The discrete time system with the transfer
1
0.4 0.25 0.1
G z
z z z
is
a. stable
b. unstable
c. marginally stable
d. sustained oscillatory
a. C2 N–1 m–2
b. C2 N m2
c. C–2 N m2
d. C–2 N m–1
12. A positively charged object is placed in the
centre of a room with a uniform magnetic
field. If the magnetic field is pointing east, the
object will
a. move east
b. move north
c. move south
d. remain stationary
13. The input impedance of a quarter-wave long
short-circuited lossless transmission line is
a. purely reactive
b. purely resistive
c. infinite
d. dependent on the characteristic impedance
of the line
14. For a plane wave propagating in the free
space,
Set-D ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
BSNL JTO(EE) 2009
SECTION-I
QUESTION NUMBER 1-20
CARRY 1 MARK EACH
a. the electric and magnetic fields are in
parallel to the direction of propagation
there is no field in the direction of
propagation
b. the electric and magnetic fields are out of
phase
c. the magnetic field amplitude is inversely
proportional to the electric field amplitude
15. Which of the following materials has the
largest energy gap between the conduction
band and the valence band?
a. Gold
b. Silicon
c. Doped germanium
d. Porcelain
16. The area of hysteresis loop in a ferromagnetic
material is a measure of
a. loss of energy
b. loss of magnetic domain
c. loss of magnetic dipole
d. loss of eddy currents
17. If a tetra-valent impurity is added to a pure
silicon crystal at room temperature, it becomes
a. a p-type semiconductor
b. an n-type semiconductor
c. an npn-type semiconductor.
d. an insulator
18. The circuit shown in Fig. I.18 has the
following source values:
VA = 600 t u(t+1) V, VB = 600(t+1) u(t) V and
IC = 6 (t—1) u(t—1) A, where u(.) denotes the
unit step function. For this circuit, the current i
at t = –0.5s will be
a. -9 A
b. -6 A
c. -1 A
d. 0 A
19. Assuming the transformer in Fig. I.19 ideal,
the effective value of the load seen by the
source is
20. If an electrical transformer and a mechanical
gear system are considered analogous to each
other, the equivalent quantity of the
transformer primary voltage in the gear system
will be
a. angular speed
b. displacement
c. torque
d. moment of inertia
21. If a unit ramp input v(t) is applied to the
circuit shown in Fig. I.21, then the steady state
value of the output will be
a. 0.002
b. 5
c. 500
d. 2000
22. An analog dc ammeter of full scale current of
1 mA is obtained by connecting a shunt
galvanometer having a full scale current of
for obtaining an ammeter of full scale current
of 10 mA using the same galvanometer is
23. An average responding analog ac voltmeter
using half wave rectifier to read RMS value of
the input sinusoidal voltage. If the meter reads
24 V for a square wave input with zero mean,
the actual RMS value of the input is
a. 24 2 V
b. 24
2
V
c. 48 2 V
d. 24
2
V
24. A resistance is measured by the voltmeterammeter
method. The voltmeter reading is 25
V on the 100 V scale and the ammeter reading
is 250 mA on the 500 mA scale. Both meters
are accurate within ±1 per cent of full-scale
reading. The maximum possible error, in
percent of measured value of the resistor is
QUESTION NUMBER 21-50
CARRY 2 MARKS EACH
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a. ± 2%
b. ± 2.5%
c. ±4%
d. ±6%
25. An energy meter makes 200 revolutions of
disc per unit of energy. The meter is tested by
connecting to a load of 20 A at pf 0.8 lagging
in 250 V mains for one hour. If the observed
number of revolutions is 760, the percentage
error in the meter is
a. 0.5% fast
b. 2.5% fast
c. 5% slow
d. 25% slow
26. The ac bridge given in Fig. I.26 is balanced at
inductor L is
a. 1 H
b. 0.1 H
c. 0.5 mH
d. 0.2 mH
resistors in other three arms. The bridge
supply is 5.4 V with the RTD connected to
zero potential and the bridge is balanced at
0°C. At room temperature the bridge
unbalanced output voltage is 0.2 V with the
RTD side of the output being positive. The
room temperature is
a. 6.4°C
b. 15°C
c. 25°C
d. 40°C
28. The volumetric flow rate (Q) for a turbine
flowmeter with 8 blades in the rotor is given
–5
ngular velocity in
rad/s. If a proximity device used to pick-up
presence of rotor blades gives output of 48
pulses/s, the flow rate is
–5 m3/s
–5 m3/s
–4 m3/s
–4 m3/s
29. Which of the following conditions ensures that
exactly two roots of s3 + as2 + s + c = 0 lie in
the right half of the s-plane?
a. a > 0, c > 0 and a > c
b. a >0, c > 0 and a < c
c. a > 0 and c < 0
d. a < 0 and c = a
30. The loop transfer function of a unity feedback
1
1 4
s s K
G s
s s
. For
a. s = –1 and s = –4
b. s = –1 + j and s = –1 – j
c. s = 1 and s = –
d. s = –3+ 6 and s = –3– 6
31. The approximate transfer function of a system
with the following frequency response is
Gain in dB -20 -20.5 -26 -60
Phase in
Degree 0 0 -90 -180
a.
0.9
0.9
0.9
0.9
32. The diagonal form of the state space
representation of a SISO system with the
transfer function
2
3 2
3 6 2
3 2
Y s s s
U s s s s
can be
expressed as
a.
0 0 0 1
0 1 0 1
0 0 2 1
1 1 1
x x u
y x
b.
0 0 0 1
0 1 0 1
0 0 2 1
3 6 2
x x u
y x
c.
0 0 0 1
0 1 0 1
0 0 2 1
0 1 2
x x u
y x
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d.
0 0 0 1
0 1 0 1
0 0 2 1
2 6 3
x x u
y x
33. A feed forward controller of the form
K s a
G s
s b
is designed for a plant with
1
3
G s
s s
such that
the undamped natural frequency and the
damping ratio of the closed loop second order
system are 2 rad/s and 0.5, respectively. When
the steady state error to a unit step input is
zero, then the controller parameters are
a. K=4, a=3, b=2
b. K=1, a=3, b=2
c. K=4, a=2, b=3
d. K=1, a=2, b=3
34. The transfer function of the system with the
state space representation
; 11
0 1 1
x u y x u
is
1
1
c.
2
1
s
s
d.
2
1 1
s
s s
35. The system with the state space representation
as given in Q.34 is
a. controllable
b. observable
c. marginally controllable
d. not observable
s
The state feedback gain controller k that places
the pole of the regulatory control system at s =
—1 is given by
a. k = 0
b. k = 0.5
c. k = 1
d. k = 2
37. The state space representation of the system
shown in Fig. I.37 can have the state and
output equation constants
a.
0 0 0
A 1 ,B 1 ,C 1
R R C
b.
0 0 0
A 1 ,B 1 ,C 1
C R C
c.
0 0 0 0
A 1 ,B 1 ,C 1
R C R C
d.
0 0 0 0
A 1 ,B 1 ,C 1
R C R C
38. A unit step sequence is applied as the input to
a system with the closed loop transfer function
2
2
4 8 1
12 5 2
T z z z
z z
. The steady state error of
the system is
a. 1
15
b. 3
15
c. 4
15
d. 11
15
39. Which of the following field equations
indicates that isolated magnetic charges do not
exist?
a. 0
v
b. 0
4 2
B I dl r
R
40. A transmission line of characteristics
transmission line will be
a. 1.2 : 1
b. 1.5 : 1
c. 2 : 1
d. 5 : 1
a. F
b. F
must be perpendicular to B
but not to
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d. F
must be perpendicular to the plane
.
42. A 1 m long wire with a radius of
10 3 m
carries a current of 20 A. If power dissipation
along the wire is 4 W/m, the conductivity of
–1 m–1) is
a. 4×108
b. 108
c. 107
d. 5×108
43. A parallel plate capacitor is made to store 5 ×
10–6 C. The separation distance between the
plates is 0.3 mm and area of each of the plates
is 0.02 m2. If vacuum is used as dielectric
between the plates, the voltage rating of
capacitor is
a. 0.118 mV
b. 118V
c. 8.475 kV
d. 8.475 MV
(Given that the permittivity of free space is
8.85 x 10–12 F/m)
44. The value of the load current IL in Fig. I.44 is
a. 50/31 A
b. 5/11 A
c. 5/31 A
d. 0 A
45. The current (iC) through the capacitor in Fig.
I.45 is
a. 0 A
b. 0.625 sin(200t) A
c. 0.88 sin(200t — 45°) A
d. 1.25 sin(200t) A
46. The capacitor in Fig. I.46 is initially
discharged. At t = 0 s, the switch is closed. At
t = 100 ms the current (IC) through the
capacitor is
a. 0 mA
b. 4
5
mA
e
c. 12
5
mA
e
d. 4 mA
e
47. The switch in Fig. I.47 is closed at t = 0 s. At
steady state, the current (IL) through the
inductor is
a. 0 A
b. 2 A
c. 30/7 A
d. 8 A
48. In the circuit shown in Fig. I.48, the Norton
equivalent current IN and resistance RN
between the points a and b are
a. IN = —
b. IN = —
c. IN = —
d. IN = —
49. The nodal voltage V1 in Fig. 1.49 is
a. –13.5 V
b. – 6.75 V
c. – 4.5 V
d. 0 V
50. A balanced 440 V, 3 phase supply is driving a
parallel combination of star and delta loads. If
phase, the supply current per phase is
a. 44
3
A
b. 44 3A
c. 176
3
A
d. 176 3 A
1. An arithmetic operation in the 8085
microprocessor sets the sign and parity flags.
The contents of the accumulator after the
execution of the operation can be
a. 1011 0100
b. 0010 1101
c. 1010 1101
d. 0110 0111
2. An instruction of the 8085 microprocessor that
requires both memory read and memory write
machine cycles is
a. MVI M, 8F
b. LHLD 8088
c. RST 1
d. ADD M
3. The duration of one T-state in the 8085
microprocessor that uses a crystal of 5.00
MHz is
4. In a vacuum diode, the discrete nature of
electron flow causes
a. thermal noise
b. white noise
c. filtered white noise
d. shot noise
5. The rate at which information can be passed
through a telecommunication channel depends
on the
a. JM carrier frequency
b. carrier bandwidth
c. transmission loss
d. transmission power
6. In a commercial TV broadcasting system, the
receiver filter structure for the video signal and
the frequency gap between audio and video
carriers are, respectively,
a. VSB,4.5 MHz
b. LPF,4 MHz
c. HPF, 3 MHz
d. BPF, 2 MHz
7. The SCR turn-off time increases with
a. lower junction temperature
b. lower operating frequencies
c. lower positive gate biases
d. lower peak reverse current
8. The freewheeling diode in a single phase
controlled rectifier with inductive load results
in
a. a small ripple voltage and reduction of
reactive power
b. a large ripple voltage and reduction of
reactive power
c. a decreased range of firing angle
d. a negative average load voltage
9. The chopper circuit shown in Fig. 11.9
operates the motor in quadrants
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I and III
d. I and IV
10. A 280 V, 10 hp, 4 pole, 60 Hz star connected
induction motor has full load slip of 5%. If
rotor is blocked, its electrical frequency is
a. 0 Hz
b. 3 Hz
c. 50 Hz
d. 60 Hz
11. An ideal transformer core should have
a. high reluctance
b. high conductivity
c. high permeability
d. high permittivity
12. For a 3 phase synchronous generator with zero
pf leading load, the terminal voltage due to
armature reaction
a. increases
b. decreases
c. does not change
d. comes down to zero volts
13. Which of the following equipments is
generally used for power factor correction in
industrial plants?
a. 3 phase induction motor
b. 3 phase synchronous motor
c. DC series motor
d. DC shunt motor
14. The maximum demand, load factor and the
plant rated capacity of a generating station are
100 MW, 0.65 and 130 MW, respectively. The
daily energy produced in the station is
a. 1560 MWhr
b. 2028 MWhr
c. 2400 MWhr
d. 3120 MWhr
15. Which of the following water turbines is of
impulse type?
a. Pelton turbine
b. Francis turbine
SECTION-II
QUESTION NUMBER 1-20
CARRY 1 MARK EACH
c. Kaplan turbine
d. Deriaz turbine
16. The receiving end voltage of a 20
km1origoverhéad transmission line is to be
kept constant at 10 kV. Its voltage regulation
is 20% with a load. If a capacitor is connected
in parallel with the load to reduce the
regulation to 10%, the sending end voltage is
a. 9 kV
b. 10 kV
c. 11 kV
d. 12 kV
17. For an n-p-n silicon BJT operating in the
active region with grounded emitter, if the
equivalent base voltage and the equivalent
respectively, its base current is
a. 0.07 mA
b. 0.1 mA
c. 0.17 mA
d. 1 mA
18. The B
equivalent to a two-input
a. NAND gate
b. NOR gate
c. X-OR gate
d. X-NOR gate
19. In a multi-stage R-C coupled amplifier, the
coupling capacitor
a. limits the low frequency response
b. limits the high frequency response
c. does not affect the frequency response
d. blocks the DC components without
affecting the frequency response
20. The minimum number of MOS transistors
required to make a dynamic RAM cell is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
21. The range of the address of the RAM which is
interfaced to a microprocessor as shown in
Fig. 11.21 is
a. 1400—17FF
b. E400—EFFF
c. F000—FFFF
d. F400—F7FF
22. After the execution of the following program
in the 8085 microprocessor, the contents of the
accumulator are
Address Code Mnemonics
203A 3E 20 MVI A, 20H
203C 2A 3A 20 LHLD 203AH
203F 86 ADD M
2040 76 HLT
a. 20H
b. 40H
c. 5EH
d. 7CR
23. For a single tone AM wave, if the modulation
index is 1/2, the ratio of the power in the
sidebands to that in the entire modulated wave
is
a. 1/9
b. 1/8
c. 1/4
d. 1/2
24. For a single tone FM wave with a maximum
frequency deviation of 75 kHz and the
modulation frequency of 15 kHz, the
transmission bandwidth is
a. 90 kHz
b. 120 kHz
c. 150 kHz
d. 180 kHz
25. If the codeword length of a PCM system is
increased from 8 bits to 9 bits, the
corresponding signal to quantization noise
ratio gets improved by
a. 0 dB
b. 6 dB
c. 8 dB
d. 9 dB
26. In time division multiplexing (TDM),
a. input and output commutators need not be
synchronized
b. each signal is sampled below Nyquist rate
c. different signal samples are interleaved
and a single composite signal is
transmitted over the channel
d. the signals are collected at the receiving
end without any filtering
27. A half-wave controlled rectifier connected to a
sinusoidal input source of peak amplitude 300
V supplies power to a resistive load at a firing
angle of 120°. The ratio of its average load
voltage to the supply peak voltage is
a. 1
b. 1
QUESTION NUMBER 20-50
CARRY 2 MARKS EACH
c. 1
d. 2
28. A fully controlled bridge rectifier with
resistive load is connected to a Y-Y
transformer having RMS value of the
secondary from phase to neutral of 300 V. If
the firing angle is 30°, then average load
voltage will be
a. 607.70 V
b. 350.86 V
c. 248.09 V
d. 202.57 V
29. A 1-phase to 1-phase cycloconverter is having
a resistive load connected to the centre tap of
the secondary of the source transformer. The
input source gets short circuited when
a. firing angle of each thyristor is 0°
b. firing angle of each thyristor is 90°
c. load voltage frequency is not a
submultiple of the source voltage
frequency
d. load voltage frequency is submultiple of
the source voltage frequency
30. A multiple rectangular pulse-modulated
inverter with 250V and 50 Hz has 20 pulses
per cycle locked with the inverter output
frequency. The frequency of pulses is
a. 1000 Hz
b. 500 Hz
c. 250 Hz
d. 50 Hz
31. Fig. II.31 shows the circuit of an ideal
chopper. Assuming no ripple in the output and
the duty cycle of the switch to be D, the
average load voltage across the load RL
becomes
a. E
b. DE
c. E/(1-D)
d. E(1-D)
32. Fig. II.32 shows a switched capacitor where
the switches S1 and S2 are alternatively closed
and opened at a frequency of 1 kHz.
equivalent resistance becomes
33. A 400 V, 60 Hz, 3 phase induction motor is
drawing 60 A at 0.85 pf lagging. The stator
and the rotor copper losses are 2 kW and 1
kW, respectively. If the core losses are 1.5 kW
then the air gap power is
a. 30.83 kW
b. 31.83 kW
c. 37.44 kW
d. 57.69 kW
34. A 500 kVA, 11000/400 V tap changing
transformer is used to regulate the voltage in a
distribution network. The voltage ratio of this
transformer at 2% tap change is
a. 11220/408
b. 11220/400
c. 220/8
d. 10780/392
35. A long shunt DC compound generator drives
parallelly connected 20 lamps, each having a
shunt resistance, armature resistance and series
generated emf is
a. 505 V
b. 502.5 V
c. 497.5 V
d. 495 V
36. A 250 V DC shunt motor has armature
resistance of
develops a back emf of 242 V at 1500 rpm.
The armature current at the time of starting is
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a. 80 A
b. 250 A
c. 2500 A
d. 2525 A
37. A 220 V DC series motor running at 800 rpm
takes a current of 20 A and develops a back
emf of 200 V. The motor has armature
same current of 20 A, the external resistance to
be connected in series with the armature is
38. An induction motor operating at 0.8 pf lagging
is consuming 300 kW. A zero real power
consuming synchronous motor is connected
across the induction motor to raise the pf to
0.92 lagging. The reactive power drawn by the
synchronous motor is
a. - 352 kVAR
b. - 225 kVAR
c. - 127.8 kVAR
d. - 97.2 kVAR
39. An interconnector cable having a reactance of
j0.05 pu links two generating stations G1 and
G2 as shown in Fig. II.39 where |V1| = |V2| = 1
pu. The load demands at two buses are SD1 =
15 + j5 pu and SD2 = 25 + j15 pu. The total
reactive power (in pu) at the generating station
a. 25.68
b. 25
c. 5.68
d. 5
40. A 10 MW generator is connected to load
through a transmission line. If the incremental
cost of production is dF 0.1P 3
dP
and loss in transmission line is 1 MW, the
incremental cost of received power in
Rs./MWhr is
a. 5.44
b. 5
c. 4.44
d. 4
41. An IDMT relay of rating 5A, 2.2s and having
a relay setting of 125% is connected to a
supply circuit through a CT having a ratio of
400/5. The plug setting multiplier of IDMT
relay in the event of fault current of 4000 A
will be
a. 5
b. 8
c. 10
d. 125
42. A 2.5 kVA, 100/400 V single phase
transforme
measured from the primary side. The leakage
reactance (in pu) measured from the secondary
side of the transformer is
a. 0.96
b. 0.9
c. 0.015
d. 0.1
43. A single phase 50 Hz generator supplies an
inductive load of 5000 kW by means of a 20
km long overhead transmission line whose
is required to be kept constant at 10 kV. The
efficiency of transmission line when pf of load
is improved to 0.9 lagging is
a. 98.08%
b. 97.64%
c. 82.1%
d. 78.83%
44. Two generating stations G1 and G2 of ratings
10 MVA and 8 MVA respectively are linked
by a line rated at 5 MVA, 0.1 Pu reactance.
Each station has a reactance of 0.5 pu. If the
base MVA is 10 MVA, short-circuit MVA of
G1 is
a. 36.6
b. 34.28
c. 32.15
d. 10
45. If a bias voltage of VT (in V) is applied to a
forward-biased silicon p-n junction diode with
a non-ideality coefficient of 2, the diode
current (in A) shall be
a. 0 I
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c. 0 eI
46. Assuming the forward diode drop as 0V, the
output voltage V0, as shown in Fig. II.46, is
a. 0 V
b. 5 V
c. 3.5 V
d. 6.5 V
47. Two two-port networks are connected in
cascade. The combination is to be represented
as a single two-port network. The parameters
of the network are obtained by multiplying the
individual
a. z-parameter matrix
b. h-parameter matrix
c. y-parameter matrix
d. ABCD-parameter matrix
48. For the ideal OP-AMP shown in Fig. II.48, the
output voltage V0 is
a. 2 V
b. 6 V
c. 10 V
d. 20 V
49. How many minimum number of NOR gates
are required to realize a two-input X-OR gate?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
50. The sequential circuit shown in Fig. II.50 will
act as a
a. Mod—1 counter
b. Mod—2 counter
c. Mod—3 counter
d. Mod—4 counter
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1. Chandrayaan-I, India’s first mission to the
moon, has 11 scientific instruments that are
being released on the surface of the moon.
These instruments are together known as
a. Moon Impact Probes
b. Terrain Mapping Cameras
c. Scientific Payloads
d. Spectrometers
2. The World Wide Web was invented by
a. Tim Berners-Lee
b. Narayanmurthy
c. Sabeer Bhatia
d. Charles Babbage
3. How many diagonals does a quadrilateral
have?
a. one
b. two
c. four
d. eight
4. ISO 14000 standards deal with
a. quality management
b. production management
c. human resource management
d. environmental management
5. Which Indian politician’s autobiography is
titled The Story of My Life?
a. Morarji Desai
b. Mahatma Gandhi
c. Lal Krishna Advani
d. Atal Behari Vajpayee
6. The phrase ‘through thick and thin’ means
a. big and small
b. thin and fat
c. large object
d. under all conditions
7. Picturesque means
a. photogenic
b. simple
c. stimulating
d. ugly
8. Diligent means
a. intelligent
b. energetic
c. modest
d. industrious
9. The opposite of miserly is
a. spendthrift
b. generous
c. liberal
d. charitable
10. The opposite of ingratitude is
a. sympathy
b. reward
c. thankfulness
d. stimulation
11. The appropriate missing word in the blank
space in the sentence “I prefer coffee _____
tea.” is
a. than
b. over
c. for
d. to
12. The appropriate missing word in the blank
space in the sentence “Many relatives attended
_________ him during his illness.”
a. of
b. on
c. for
d. with
13. The article required before the word “oneeyed”
in the sentence “There was ________
one-eyed beggar by the multiplex.” is
a. the
b. a
c. an
d. nil
14. The article required before the word
University in the sentence “She met Professor
Shah at ________________University.” is
a. a
b. an
c. the
d. nil
15. Which one is the correct sentence amongst the
following sentences?
SECTION - III
ALL QUESTIONS CARRY
1 MARK EACH
a. Mr. Gupta, accompanied by his friends,
were assembled on the lawns.
b. Mr. Gupta, accompanied by his friends,
are assembled on the lawns.
c. Mr. Gupta, accompanied by his friends,
assembled on the lawns.
d. Mr. Gupta, accompanied by his friends,
have assembled on the lawns.
16. Who was the first woman to be elected as the
President of the Indian National Congress?
a. Sarojini Naidu
b. Sonia Gandhi
c. Indira Gandhi
d. Annie Besant
17. Which political leader delivered the famous ‘I
have a dream’ speech?
a. Jawaharlal Nehru
b. Winston Churchill
c. Martin Luther King
d. Rabindranath Tagore
18. Who established the organization ‘Khudai
Khdmatgar’?
a. Hyder Ali
b. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
c. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
d. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
19. Analgesics are drugs used to prevent or relieve
a. aches and pain
b. fever and high body temperature
c. hormone deficiency
d. stress and anxiety
20. The abbreviation CD stands for
a. Circular Disc
b. Computer Device
c. Compact Disc
d. Code-Demodulator
1. Q-meter works on the principle of
a. series resonance
b. parallel resonance
c. mutual inductance
d. self inductance
2. The bridge circuit shown in Fig. Q2-I
a. cannot be balanced
b. can be balanced but the frequency of
excitation must be known
c. can be balanced for only one frequency
d. can be balanced at any frequency
3. Which one of the following statements is
TRUE for an ‘ideal’ power diode?
a. Forward voltage drop is zero and reverse
saturation current is non-zero.
b. Reverse recovery time is non-zero and
reverse saturation current is zero.
c. Forward voltage drop is zero and reverse
recovery time is zero.
d. Forward voltage drop is non-zero and
reverse recovery time is zero.
4. In a MOSFET, the pinch-off voltage refers to
a. drain-to-source voltage at which drain-tosource
current is zero
b. gate-to-source voltage at which gate-tosource
current is zero
c. drain-to-source voltage at which gate-tosource
current is zero
d. gate-to-source voltage at which drain-tosource
current is zero
5. Which of the following statements is TRUE
for DC switched mode power supply?
a. It cannot provide isolation between input
and output as in rectifiers.
b. It cannot remove ripple as in DC
switching mode regulators.
c. It has two stage conversions: dc-ac and acdc.
d. It is a type of chopper circuit.
6. Which one of the following is a ceramic
insulator?
a. Mica
b. Porcelain
c. Liquid crystal
d. Synthetic fiber
7. Which one of the following represents a direct
band-gap material?
a. Si
b. Ge
c. GaP
d. GaAs
8. Which one of the following statements is NOT
true?
a. Rochelle salt exhibits ferroelectric
property.
b. Spontaneous polarization is a
characteristic property of ferroelectric
material.
c. Spontaneous polarization of ferroelectric
materials usually vanishes below
ferroelectric Curie temperature.
d. Ferroelectric materials exhibit hysteresis
effect.
9. Which one of the following diodes contains a
metal-semiconductor junction?
a. Tunnel diode
b. Zener diode
c. Schottky diode
d. Gunn diode
10. Which one of the following statements is NOT
true?
a. Ferrites can be used in transformer cores
only at very low frequencies.
b. Ferrites are ferrimagnetic material.
c. Ferrites show spontaneous magnetization
below certain temperature.
d. DC resistivity of ferrites is many orders of
ten higher than that of iron.
11. Which one of the following statements is NOT
true?
Set-D TELECOM
BSNL JTO (TC) 2009
SECTION - I
QUESTION NUMBER 1- 20
CARRY 1 MARK EACH
a. In an intrinsic semiconductor,
concentration of electrons in the
conduction band is same as the
concentration of holes in the valance band.
b. The probability of an energy state at the
Fermi level being occupied by an electron
is 1/2.
c. Mobility of electrons is higher than that of
holes.
d. In an n-type semiconductor, concentration
of holes is equal to that of the intrinsic
concentration.
12. ABCD parameters of a two-port network is
defined as 1 2
1 2
.
V A B V
I C D I
If the port-2 is
terminated by a resistance RL, the admittance
looking into the port-1 is
13. The phenomenon of injection electroluminescence
is the basis of working of
a. photodiodes
b. light emitting diodes
c. phototransistors
d. solar cells
14. A parallel combination of N resistances is
connected across an ideal current source of I
Amperes. The expression for the current in the
kth resistor Rk is
15. In the circuit shown in Fig. Q15-I, the voltage
across the terminals AB (in Volt) is
a. 5/30°
b. 12.5/30°
c. 17/30°
d. 25/30°
line of characteristic impedance Z0 is
terminated to a load of impedance ZL as shown
in the Fig. Q16-I. The input impedance as seen
at the other end is
a.
0
L Z
Z
b. ZL
c. ZLZ0
d.
2
0
L Z
Z
17. A microstrip line has a strip width W and a
grounded dielectric substrate of thickness d
following statements is NOT true?
function of W
d
c. The characteristic impedance of the line is
a function of W
d
d. The line can support pure TEM mode of
wave propagation.
18. For a rectangular waveguide of internal
wave propagation with the lowest cut off
frequency is
a. TE01
b. TE10
c. TE11
d. TM11
19. The mo
radiation resistance of a quarter wave
monopole antenna is
a. 36.5
b. 50
c. 73
d. 120
20. Which one of the following is an active
transducer?
a. Photo-voltaic cell
b. Strain gauge
c. Photo-emissive cell
d. Synchro
is to be converted to a 1 A ammeter by using a
shunt resistance. Which one of the followings
is the most appropriate shunt resistance?
22. The forward voltage drop of a power diode is
VD = 1.0 V at the diode current ID = 200 A.
thermal voltage VT = 25.7 mV, the reverse
saturation current Is (approximate) is
23. In the circuit shown in Fig. Q23-I, the voltage
magnitude of percentage error in the
measurement is
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
24. Fig. Q24-I shows some load voltage versus
load current plots. Which one of them is NOT
valid for the classification of dc-dc converters?
a. P
b. Q
c. R
d. S
25. Two single phase inverters, one half-bridge
and the other full-bridge, operating with equal
inputs delivering power to identical loads. The
ratio of, the power delivered, the first
harmonic voltage and the total harmonic
distortion, for full-bridge inverter to halfbridge
inverter, respectively, are
a. 4, 2, 1
b. 4, 2, 2
c. 4, 1, 1
d. 2, 1, 1
26. The correct match between Column A and
Column B is
Column A
1. DC Switch
2. Regulated DC-DC
3. AC-to-AC
4. DC-to-AC
Column B
R. Inverter
S. MOSFET
P. Boost Converter
Q. Cycloconverter
a. 1-R, 2-Q, 3-P, 4-S
b. 1-S, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-R
c. 1-P, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-S
d. 1-S, 2-Q, 3-P, 4-R
27. For the power transistor circuit shown in Fig.
Q27-
With an overdrive factor of 2.5, the required
resistance RB for saturation is
QUESTION NUMBER 21-50
CARRY 2 MARKS EACH
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28. For a lossless air-filled cubical cavity of
internal dimension 5 cm on each sides, the
resonant frequency for the TE101 mode is
a. 5 2 GHz
b. 5 GHz
c. 3 2 GHz
d. 3 GHz
29. Which one of the following statements is NOT
true?
a. For SCRs to be in the conduction state, the
forward anode current must be greater
than the latching current.
b. For SCRs to be in the forward blocking
state, the forward anode current must be
lower than the holding current.
c. When SCRs are in the conduction state,
they can be turned off by applying suitable
gate pulses.
d. When avalanche breakdown takes place,
SCRs enter into the conduction state.
30. Consider two metallic wires W1 and W2. They
are made up of same material and each has
circular cross section. The diameter of W2 is
twice that of W1 and the length of W2 is four
times that of W1. Which one of the following
statements is TRUE?
a. Resistance of W1 is half that of W2
b. Resistance of W1 is equal to that of W2
c. Resistance of W1 is twice that of W2
d. Resistance of W1 is eight times that of W2
31. A current of 1 A flows through a circular loop
of superconducting wire having mean diameter
of 1 m, cross section area of 1 mm2 and self
-7 H. The current reduces
to 0.99 A after 1 year. The resistivity of the
wire is
a. 1.275 x 10-
b. 1.275 x 10-
c. 1.275 x 10-
d. 1.275 x 10-
32. An npn transistor is operating in CE mode and
carries a collector current Ic = 1 mA when the
collector to emitter voltage VCE = 1 V. If the
early voltage for the transistor is 74 V and
base to emitter voltage VBE is kept constant, at
VCE = 11 V the collector current is
a. 15/19 mA
b. 1 mA
c. 19/15 mA
d. 19/12 mA
33. Two parallel plate capacitors shown in Fig.
Q33-I (a) and Fig. Q33-I (b) have capacitances
C1 and C2, respectively. If C2 = 2 C1, which
one of the following relations is TRUE?
(Neglect fringing effect)
a.
4
b.
2
c.
3
d. 2
3
34. A doped semiconductor specimen has Hall
coefficient 3.6 x 10-4 m3C-1 and the resistivity
9 x 10-
conduction, the mobility and density of
carriers in the specimen, respectively, are
(approximately)
a. 0.04 m2 V-1 s-1 and 1.74 x 1022 m-3
b. 0.4 m2 V-1 s-1 and 1.74 x 1022 m-3
c. 0.04 m2 V-1 s-1 and 1.74 x 1018 m-3
d. 4.0 m2 V-1 s-1 and 1.74x10-8 m-3
concentration, intrinsic concentration, mobility
of electrons and mobility of holes, the
minimum conductivity of a semiconductor
sample occurs at
a. p
i
n
n n
b. n
i
p
n n
36. GaAs has bandgap energy of 1.42 eV. The
material would produce photon output at a
wavelength of (Planck s constant = 6.625 x 10-
34 J-s, q = 1.6 x 10-19 C)
37. At a frequency of 1 GHz, the equivalent
represents wavelength) short-circuited lossless
38. For the circuit shown in Fig. Q38-I, the
If VC is to be set at 7.5 V, the required value
s
a. 172
b. 136
c. 100
d. 82
39. A quarter wave matching transformer is used
characteristic impedance of the quarter wave
matching section is
40. If the average power delivered to a load
terminated to a lossless transmission line is
75% of that of the incident power, the VSWR
on the line is
a. 1/3
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
41. For the circuit shown in Fig. Q41-I, a value of
ource would
deliver 50% of the maximum deliverable
power, is
a. 1
b. 0.5
c. 0.25
42. In the circuit shown in Fig. Q42-I (a), the
current I1 = 2 A. The current I2 in Fig. Q42-I
(b) is
a. -6A
b. -4A
c. 4A
d. 6A
43. In the circuit shown in Fig. Q43-I, the current I
a. -94.34 mA
b. -70.34 mA
c. 70.34 mA
d. 94.34 mA
44. For the circuit shown in Fig. Q44-I, the
Thevenin’s voltage and resistance at terminals
A and B, respectively, are
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45. In the circuit shown in Fig. Q45-I, the switch
closes at t = 0. Assuming steady state
condition for t = 0-, the current iL at t = 0.15
sec is (approximately)
a. 0.04 A
b. 0.5 A
c. 0.76 A
d. 1.60 A
46. A PMMC instrument has a coil of dimensions
10 mm x 10 mm and the flux density in the air
gap is 2 mW/m2. The coil has 100 turns. If a
current of 5 mA produces an angular
deflection of 90°, the spring constant of the
instrument is
a. 2 10 8
-m/rad
b. 10 8
2
-m/rad
-m/rad
d. 1 10 8
-m/rad
47. In the circuit shown in Fig. Q47-I, assume the
diodes are ideal and the ammeter is an average
indicating meter with zero internal resistance.
The ammeter reading is
a. 0.4 mA
b. 0.8 mA
c. 0.4
2
mA
d. 0.8
2
mA
48. A capacitive transducer uses two quartz
diaphragms of area 550 mm2 each separated
by a distance of 3.7 mm. A pressure of 750
kN/m2 applied to the top diaphragm produces
a displacement of 0.7 mm. The capacity is 390
pF when no pressure is applied to the
diaphragm. The value of the capacitance after
the application of pressure of 750 kN/m2 is
a. 400 pF
b. 451 pF
c. 481 pF
d. 500 pF
and has a temperature coefficient of -
This thermistor is used to measure the
temperature of a system by the arrangement
shown in Fig. Q49-I. If the system temperature
falls to 20°C, the VAB measured by the
voltmeter is
a. -10/29 V
b. -15/29V
c. 10/29 V
d. 15/29 V
50. For the circuit shown in Fig. Q50-I, if the
current I = 3 A, then the voltage V2 is
a. 2.5 V
b. 5 V
c. 8 V
d. 10 V
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1. Which one of the following statements is NOT
true for a TWT?
a. The interaction region usually consists of a
slow wave helix structure.
b. A static axial magnetic field keeps the
electron beam focused.
c. Continued interaction takes place between
the waves on a traveling wave structure
and the electron beam.
d. TWT amplifiers are suitable only for
narrowband microwave communication
systems.
2. The minimized form of the Boolean
3. Number of address lines required to address 8
k bytes of memory is
a. 13
b. 14
c. 15
d. 16
4. The standard binary code for alpha numeric
characters is
a. ASCII
b. GRAY
c. BCD
d. Excess-3
5. The 2’s complement of the binary number
1101100 in BCD is
a. 12
b. 13
c. 14
d. 15
6. In the op-amp circuit shown in Fig. Q6-II, the
voltage ratio V0/Vi is
a. - 2
b. - 1
c. - 0.5
d. 0.5
7. For the Schmitt trigger circuit shown in Fig.
Q7-II, assuming diodes and op-amp are ideal,
the values of lower and upper threshold points
of voltage transfer characteristics, respectively,
are
a. - 8V, + 5V
b. - 5V, + 5V
c. - 5V, + 8V
d. - 8V, + 8V
8. Which one of the following Boolean
expressions is NOT correct?
9. A Boolean function can be expressed
a. as sum of maxterms or product of
minterms
b. as product of maxterms or sum of
minterms
c. partly as product of maxterms and partly
as sum of minterms
d. partly as sum of maxterms and partly as
product of minterms
10. Among the following logic families, the one
having the lowest power dissipation and
highest noise margin is
a. Schottky TTL
b. TTL
c. ECL
d. CMOS
11. The characteristic equation of a level triggered
T flip-flop, with T as input and Q as output is
loop control system encloses the point (-1, j0)
in GH-plane. The gain margin of the system in
dB, is
SECTION- II
QUESTION NUBER 1-20
CARRY 1 MARK EACH
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a. greater than zero
b. less than zero
c. zero
d. infinite
13. For the LTI system described by
2
2 2 3 4 2 1
d y t dy t
y t r t r t
dt dt
having zero initial conditions, the transfer
Y s
R s
is
14. An amplitude modulated double sideband
suppressed carrier signal is given by
the frequency of the carrier signal. The
modulating signal is
f t
15. Which one of the following expressions
represents a frequency modulated signal?
16. A binary pulse communication system
transmits a normalized pulse p(t) over bit
duration Tb. If the pulse p(t) has Fourier
transform P(f), the condition for zero
intersymbol interference in the absence of
noise is
ans:-??
17. The magnitude response of an ideal equalizer
for rectifying a distortion characterized by
18. If the minimum sampling frequency required
to reconstruct a band limited analog signal
from its samples is 8 kHz, the maximum
frequency present in the signal is
a. 16 kHz
c. 4 kHz
d. > 4 kHz
19. Which one of the following statements is NOT
true?
a. The two cavity klystron tube is used as an
amplifier.
b. A reflex klystron uses only a single cavity
and operates as an oscillator.
c. In klystron tubes, the bunching of
electrons is caused by velocity
modulation.
d. Klystrons belong to the category of
crossed-field tubes.
20. In a microprocessor, the program counter
points to the address location from where the
a. current byte is to be fetched
b. next byte is to be fetched
c. next byte is to be stored
d. current byte is to be added
21. A microwave link operates under free space
conditions at a frequency of 1 GHz and uses
identical antennas at the transmitter and the
receiver ends. The transmitter and the receiver
are separated by a distance of 30 km. If -30
dBm power is to be received when the
transmitted power is 1 W, the antenna gain
should be
22. In connection with memory mapped 110
which one of the following statements is NOT
true?
a. The processor treats an interface register
as a part of the memory system.
b. It reduces the memory space available.
c. The processor cannot manipulate I/O data
residing in interface registers with the
QUESTION NUMBER 21-50
CARRY 2 MARKS EACH
same instructions that are used to
manipulate memory location.
d. Arithmetic or logical operation can be
directly performed with I/O data.
23. After execution of the following C program,
the value of the sum printed is
a. 68
b. 20
c. 16
d. 4
24. If selection sort takes 3 ms to run an array of
200 elements, for a similar array of 4000
elements the selection sort is expected to take
a. 1.2 s
b. 600 ms
c. 300 ms
d. 60 ms
25. In a stack based processor organization,
postfix notation is used for evaluating
arithmetic expressions. The postfix expression
ABC*/D-EF/+ for A = 6, B = 2, C = 3, D = 3,
E = 4 and F = 2 evaluates to
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
26. In a 8085 microprocessor system, the active
low chip select (CS) signal is generated by
passing address lines A15, ...., A10 through a 6
inputs NAND gate. For selecting the address
range CC00 to CFFF, the inputs to the NAND
gate are
a. A10 , A11, A12 , A13 , A14 , A15
b. 10 11 12 13 14 15 A , A , A , A , A , A
c. 10 11 12 13 14 15 A , A , A , A , A , A
d. 10 11 12 13 14 15 A , A , A , A , A , A
27. in the context of 8085 microprocessor, the
correct matching combination between
Column A and Column B is
Column A
P. ALE
Q. PSW
R. CMA
S. RLC
Column B
1. Rotate accumulator left
2. Compare with accumulator
3. Program status word
4. Address latch enable
5. Program stack word
6. Arithmetic logic enabled
7. Complement accumulator
8. Rotate accumulator left through carry
a. P-6, Q-5, R-2, S-8
b. P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-8
c. P-4, Q-3, R-7, S-1
d. P-6, Q-5, R-7, S-1
28. The content of the memory location 2070 H
after the execution of the following 8085
program is
LXIB 2070H
MVI A, 8FH
MVI C, 68H
SUB C
ANI OFH
STAX B
HLT
a. 04 H
b. 07 H
c. 09 H
d. 0F H
29. A 8085 microprocessor program uses all
available Jump instructions, each only once.
For this program, the total memory (in Bytes)
occupied by the Jump instructions is
a. 30
b. 27
c. 24
d. 18
30. The circuit shown in Fig. Q30-II oscillates at
respectively, are
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a. 105 and 20
b. 2 × 105 and 20
c. 2 × 105 and 10
d. 105 and 10
31. A combinational circuit accepts a 2 bit binary
number and outputs its square in binary. To
design this circuit using a ROM, the minimum
size of ROM required is
a. 2 × 2
b. 4 × 2
c. 4 × 4
d. 8 × 4
32. In the op-amp circuit shown in Fig. Q32-II,
assume the diode current follows the
equation V /VT
relation between 01 02 V and V is
b. 2 1
2
33. In the 2-stage amplifier circuit shown in Fig.
Q33-II, if the transconductances of transistor
Q1 and transistor Q2 are gm1 and gm2,
respectively, the overall transconductance gm0
= i0/vi of the amplifier is
4
1
K s
G s H s
s s
, the
breakaway points in the root-loci plot
approximately are
a. – 7.46, – 1
b. – 0.54, – 1
c. – 7.46, – 0.54
d. 7.46, 0.54
35. For the circuit shown in Fig. Q35-II, the pchannel
JFET transistor parameters are IDSS =
6 mA and VP = 4 V. The source-to-drain
voltage VSD and the region of operation of the
transistor, respectively, are
a. 2.09 V and active region
b. 2.09 V and saturation region
c. 2.47 V and active region
d. 2.47 V and saturation region
36. For the truth table given in Fig. Q36-II, the
minimized Boolean expression is
Input Output
x y z p
0 0 0 1
0 0 1 0
0 1 0 0
0 1 1 1
1 0 0 0
1 0 1 1
1 1 0 1
1 1 1 0
Fig. Q36-II
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37. For a linear system having the characteristic
equation s4 + s3 + 2s2 + 2s + 3 = 0, the number
of roots in the right-half of s-plane is
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 1
7) is to be implemented using a 4 × 1
multiplexer shown in Fig. Q.38-II. Which one
of the following choices of inputs to
multiplexer will realize the Boolean function?
,0, A, A,C, B
39. An edge triggered synchronous binary counter
is provided with a clock (CLK) and control
load (L) and active high count (C). The correct
matching combination between Column A and
Column B is
Column A
where X = don’t care.
Column B
1. No change
2. Load inputs
3. Count next binary state
4. Clear outputs
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 2 3 1 4
d. 1 2 4 3
40. A 5-bit serial adder is implemented using two
5-bit shift registers, a full adder and a D flipflop.
The two binary words to be added are
11011 and 11011. The sum of the two
numbers is stored in one of the shift registers
and the carry in the D flip-flop. Assuming that
the D flip-flop is set initially, the content of
the sum shift register and the D flip-flop,
respectively, are
a. 10111 and 0
b. 11011 and 1
c. 11101 and 0
d. 10111 and 1
41. For the flow diagram shown in Fig. Q41-II,
the transfer function
Y s
R s
is
a. 2
3
b. 2
3
c. 2
3
d. 2
3
s 6s 11
42. The compensated system shown in Fig. Q42-
II, has a phase margin of 60o at the crossover
frequency of 1 rad/sec. The value of K is
a. 0.366
b. 0.732
c. 1.366
d. 2.732
43. A time division multiplex system samples 96
voice channels at a rate of 8 kHz and encodes
into 8 bits per sample. If one synchronization
bit per frame is added, the transmitted data rate
(Mbps) is
a. 6.208
b. 6.152
c. 6.144
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d. 0.768
44. A geostationary satellite located at 36,000 km
from the surface of the earth. The uplink free
space loss is 1.583 dB higher than the
downlink free space loss. If the downlink
frequency is 10 GHz, the uplink free space
loss (in dB) is
a. 10.25
b. 20.5
c. 102.5
d. 205
45. In a uniform quantizer, the quantization noise
is
a. independent of the number of levels of the
quantizer
b. proportional to square of the peak-to-peak voltage range of the quantizer
c. independent of the peak-to-peak voltage
range of the quantizer
d. proportional to square of the number of
levels of the quantizer
46. In a digital communication system, the
transmitted pulse is shown in Fig. Q46-II. The
matched filter output at the sampling instant
(i.e., t = 1 sec) is
a.32
b. 1
c.12
d.16
47. An optical link uses a fiber having a power
loss of 1 dB/km. A typical photo detector has
responsively 0.5 A/W. If the link is 3 km long
and the detector is required to produce a
power is
a. 0 dBm
b. – 10 dBm
c. – 30 dBm
d. – 50 dBm
48. For the directional coupler shown in Fig. Q48-
II, the coupling is 20 dB and the directivity is
30 dB. If 10 W power is incident in port-1,
power out of port-4 is
a. 0.1 mW
b. 1 mW
c. 0.01 W
d. 0.1 W
49. In a microwave measurement with slotted
rectangular waveguides, the distance between
successive minima is found to be 2.5 cm. If the
measurement has been carried out at a
frequency of 10 GHz and the guide operates in
TE10 mode, the cut off frequency fc10 for the
guide is
a. 6 GHz
b. 8 GHz
c. 10 GHz
d. 12 GHz
50. An antenna having a directivity of 2 at a
frequency of 300 MHz will have a maximum
effective aperture of
a. 1 2 8 m
b. 2 14m
c. 1 22m
d. 2 1 m
1. Chandrayaan-I, India’s first mission to the
moon, has 11 scientific instruments that are
being released on the surface of the moon.
These instruments are together known as
a. Moon Impact Probes
b. Terrain Mapping Cameras
c. Scientific Payloads
d. Spectrometers
2. The World Wide Web was invented by
a. Tim Berners-Lee
b. Narayanmurthy
c. Sabeer Bhatia
d. Charles Babbage
3. How many diagonals does a quadrilateral
have?
a. one
b. two
c. four
d. four
4. ISO 14000 standards deal with
a. quality management
b. production management
c. human resource management
d. environmental management
5. Which Indian politician’s autobiography is
titled The Story of My Life?
a. Morarji Desai
b. Mahatma Gandhi
c. Lal Krishna Advani
d. Atal Behari Vajpayee
6. The phrase ‘through thick and thin’ means
a. big and small
b. thin and fat
c. large object
d. under all conditions
7. Picturesque means
a. Photogenic
b. Simple
c. Stimulating
d. Ugly
8. Diligent means
a. intelligent
b. energetic
c. modest
d. industrious
9. The opposite of miserly is
a. spendthrift
b. generous
c. liberal
d. charitable
10. The opposite of ingratitude is
a. sympathy
b. reward
c. thankfulness
d. stimulation
11. The appropriate missing word in the blank
space in the sentence “I prefer coffee
___________________ tea.” is
a. than
b. over
c. for
d. to
12. The appropriate missing word in the blank
space in the sentence “Many relatives attended
him during his illness.”
a. of
b. on
c. for
d. with
13. The article required before the word “oneeyed”
in the sentence “There was
_____________ one-eyed beggar by the
multiplex.” Is
a. the
b. a
c. an
d. nil
14. The article required before the word
University in the sentence “She met Professor
Shah at __________ University” is
a. a
b. an
c. the
d. nil
SECTION - III
ALL QUESTIONS CARRY
1 MARK EACH
15. ‘Which one is the correct sentence amongst
the following sentences?
a. Mr. Gupta, accompanied by his friends,
were assembled on the lawns.
b. Mr. Gupta, accompanied by his friends,
are assembled on the lawns.
c. Mr. Gupta, accompanied by his friends,
assembled on the lawns.
d. Mr. Gupta, accompanied by his friends,
have assembled on the lawns.
16. Who was the first woman to be elected as the
President of the Indian National Congress?
a. Sarojini Naidu
b. Sonia Gandhi
c. Indira Gandhi
d. Annie Besant
17. Which political leader delivered the famous ‘I
have a dream’ speech?
a. Jawaharlal Nehru
b. Winston Churchill
c. Martin Luther King
d. Rabindranath Tagore
18. Who established the organization ‘Khudai
Khidmatgar’?
a. Hyder Ali
b. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
c. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
d. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
19. Analgesics are drugs used to prevent or relieve
a. aches and pain
b. fever and high body temperature
c. hormone deficiency
d. stress and anxiety
20. The abbreviation CD stands for
a. Circular Disc
b. Computer Device
c. Compact Disc
d. Code-Demodulator